Answer:
the expected return from the investment is higher than that of those investments whose standard deviation is greater than zero.
Explanation:
As for the coefficient of variation which clearly defines the difference in values from the mean value in the data set.
It clearly defines as standard deviation/mean.
Where standard deviation is 0 the coefficient will also be 0 which shall represent the risk associated with it.
The least the coefficient of variation the least the risk with maximum return.
Thus, the correct statement will be concluding that the expected return from this investment will be higher than the returns from the project in which standard deviation is more than 0.
Answer:
C) if the court finds that Shawn has substantially performed, he will be able to recover the contract price less any damages caused by his failure to perform as promised.
Explanation:
From the question Harry signed a contract with Shawn to build a house. Harry made some specification to build the house. But Shawn did not follow the specifications now Harry doesn't want to pay him the contract amount.
Under doctrine of specific performance, Harry can pay less money than the contract price. Because Shawn has performed substantially, he is not entitled to receive the contract price as agreed.
The answer is mostly True.
Answer:
single-product demand curve assumes constant money income such that a lower price causes a substitution of the now relatively cheaper product for those whose prices have not changed.
Explanation:
When the aggregate demand curve i.e. downward sloping would be different to the demand curve for the single product i.e. also downward sloping is due to as the single product demand curve would assume that the income would be constant in such a way the less price would lead a substitution that the product is not expensive at all
So the above would be the reason
Answer:
The answer is 7.37%
Explanation:
Solution
Given that
Bond per value = future value =$1000
The current price = $1,066.57
Time = 22 years * 2
=44 semi-annual periods
The year of maturity = 6.78%/2 = 3.39%
Thus
The coupon rate is computed by first calculating the amount of coupon payment.
So
By using a financial calculator, the coupon payment is calculated below:
FV= 1,000
PV= -1,066.57
n= 44
I/Y= 3.39
Now we press the PMT and CPT keys (function) to compute the payment (coupon)
What was obtained is 36.83 (value)
Thus
The annual coupon rate is: given as:
= $36.83*2/ $1,000
= $73.66/ $1,000
= 0.0737*1,00
=7.366% or 7.37%
Therefore 7.37% is the bond's coupon rate.
