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Elena L [17]
2 years ago
12

In a defined benefits plan, the employer bears the investment risks in funding a future retirement income benefit. true false

Business
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]2 years ago
7 0

It is True, In a defined benefits plan, the employer bears the investment risks in funding a future retirement income benefit.

Who bears the chance in defined benefits plan?

defined benefits plan also are known as pension plans. Employers sponsor defined benefit plans and promise the plan's investments will provide you with a specified monthly gain at retirement. The employer bears the funding dangers.

What's a defined benefits plan?

An organization-subsidized retirement plan wherein employee benefits are taken care of out based on a system the use of factors which includes income history and length of employment.

What's the risk of defined benefits plan?

Word that pension danger arises handiest with defined benefits plan. A defined-advantage 401-k plan promises to pay a particular (defined) gain to retired employees. to fulfill this obligation, the organization ought to invest wisely so that it has the finances to pay the promised advantages.

Who benefits most from a defined benefits plan?

More youthful personnel have longer for the cash to grow. contributions may be deductible depending on income limits. Contributions aren't deductible, they may be made with after tax dollars and can keep past seventy two if nonetheless running.

Learn more about defined benefits plan here:- brainly.com/question/12143528

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All of the following statements regarding accounting treatments for liabilities under U.S. GAAP and IFRS are true except:_______
mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

A) Accounting for bonds and notes under US GAAP and IFRS is similar.

Explanation:

US GAAP and IFRS do not have the same accounting guideline for bond issue cost:

Under US GAAP, bonds payable is recorded at face value while premiums or discounts are recorded separately. While under IFRS, bonds payable is recorded using the carrying value, and amortization or premiums or discounts is done by using the effective-interest method.

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3 years ago
Spree Company sold $769,300 of goods during the year at a cost of goods sold of $548,600. Inventory was $31,283 at the beginning
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

16.42

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Cost of goods sold =  $548,600

Beginning inventory of the year = $31,283

Ending inventory of the year = $35,538

Now,

the Inventory turnover ratio is calculated as;

⇒ ( Cost of goods sold ) ÷ ( Average inventory of the year )

Also,

Average inventory of the year = \frac{\textup{Beginning inventory + Ending inventory}}{\textup{2}}

= \frac{\$31,283+\$35,538}{\textup{2}}

= $33,410.5

Therefore,

Inventory turnover ratio = $548,600 ÷  $33,410.5

= 16.42

6 0
3 years ago
7. Which situation indicates a mixed economy?
STatiana [176]

Answer:

C Services are provided by both private and public sectors.

Explanation:

In a mixed economy, the private sector has the freedom to participate in economic activities, although the government has a role to play.  A mixed economy allows the private sector to own the factors of production hence are free to decide what business they wish to run. Consumers have the liberty to select their suppliers.  There is competition in the market place as profits motivate entrepreneurs.

The government is involved in the provision of public goods such as roads, hospitals, and schools. It provides regulatory services to the private sector to ensure fairness in the economy.

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