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prisoha [69]
4 years ago
10

The scarcity problem:- Persists only because countries have failed to achieve continuous full employment.- persists because econ

omic wants exceed available productive resources.- has been solved in all industrialized nations.- has been eliminated in affluent societies
Business
1 answer:
ladessa [460]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Persists because economic wants exceed available productive resources.

Explanation:

According to Lionel Robbins, Economics is the science which studies human behavior as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses.

The problem of scarcity is that our wants are always beyond what we can produce with our resources.

Economics is the solution to this problem of what resources to use, how best to use them, and when to use them.  

Because of this scarcity, all people have to make choices. When making choices, we assess the opportunity cost or the alternative forgone.

The opportunity cost of taking action is what we could have got if we had taken an alternative action.

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The price quotations of Treasury bonds in the Wall Street Journal show an ask price of 104.25 and a bid price of 104.125.
Andreas93 [3]

As a seller we would receive $1,041.25

<u>Solution:</u>

You may receive the bid price of the dealer, 104.125\% of $1,000, or $1,041.25

Prices of treasury bonds are expressed as par value amounts.  

The quote price of 104:25 means that the bond is priced at (104 + \frac{25}{100})\%= 104.25\% of the par value.  

Therefore, if the debt is $1,000, the dollar values to be charged by the borrower should be 1,000\times104.25\% = \$1,041.25

5 0
3 years ago
You just started your first job today. Besides your 401K, you are planning to save $3,000 a year for 40 years for your retiremen
umka21 [38]

Answer:

The correct answer is 777.169.56.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Payment per year (PMT) = $3,000

Time (N) = 40 years

Rate of interest (R)= 8%

So, the future value of the following can be calculated by using the following formula:

Future value = PMT × \frac{((1+r)^{n} -1)}{R}

Now, put the value of the following in the formula. then,

= 3,000 × \frac{((1+8/100)^{40} -1)}{8/100}

= 3,000 × 259.0565

= 777,169.56

Hence, the value in the account after 40 years will be 777,169.56.

6 0
3 years ago
You want to purchase a new motorcycle that costs $29,800. The most you can pay each month is $510 over the life of the 78-month
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:20,5369%

Explanation:We know APR is the Annual Percentage Rate that is paid over a loan. If we are to pay during 78 months at most $510 each month, then we could pay in total 510*78=$39780 in the course of the six years and a half that constitute the 78 months. This means that yearly we can pay in interest $39780/6,5=$6120 each year, this represents the interest over the loaned money, i.e., the $29800. Then the APR is

\\\frac{6120}{29800} =20,5369\% annualy or 1,71141% monthly and it is the highest APR you could afford, 20.5369%

4 0
3 years ago
Which options are available in Layout view? Check all that apply.
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

Resize Objects and Relocate Objects

Explanation:

I did it :)))))

8 0
3 years ago
Kurt's entertainment has a receivables turnover rate of 14.8, a payables turnover rate of 10.4 and an inventory turnover rate of
ruslelena [56]

The firm’s operating cycle is equivalent to the sum of the total number of days of a cycle of the receivables turnover and the inventory turnover.

Receivables turnover = 365 days / 14.8 = 24.66 days

Inventory turnover = 365 days / 22.6 = 16.15 days

Operating cycle = 24.66 days + 16.15 days = 40.81 days

<span>Answer: 40.81 days</span>

3 0
3 years ago
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