As a seller we would receive $1,041.25
<u>Solution:</u>
You may receive the bid price of the dealer,
of $1,000, or $1,041.25
Prices of treasury bonds are expressed as par value amounts.
The quote price of 104:25 means that the bond is priced at
of the par value.
Therefore, if the debt is $1,000, the dollar values to be charged by the borrower should be 
Answer:
The correct answer is 777.169.56.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Payment per year (PMT) = $3,000
Time (N) = 40 years
Rate of interest (R)= 8%
So, the future value of the following can be calculated by using the following formula:
Future value = PMT × 
Now, put the value of the following in the formula. then,
= 3,000 × 
= 3,000 × 259.0565
= 777,169.56
Hence, the value in the account after 40 years will be 777,169.56.
Answer:20,5369%
Explanation:We know APR is the Annual Percentage Rate that is paid over a loan. If we are to pay during 78 months at most $510 each month, then we could pay in total 510*78=$39780 in the course of the six years and a half that constitute the 78 months. This means that yearly we can pay in interest $39780/6,5=$6120 each year, this represents the interest over the loaned money, i.e., the $29800. Then the APR is
annualy or 1,71141% monthly and it is the highest APR you could afford, 20.5369%
Answer:
Resize Objects and Relocate Objects
Explanation:
I did it :)))))
The firm’s operating cycle is equivalent to the sum of
the total number of days of a cycle of the receivables turnover and the
inventory turnover.
Receivables turnover = 365 days / 14.8 = 24.66 days
Inventory turnover = 365 days / 22.6 = 16.15 days
Operating cycle = 24.66 days + 16.15 days = 40.81 days
<span>Answer:
40.81 days</span>