<u>Full question:</u>
On June 15, Harper purchased equipment for $100,000 from Imperial Corp. for use in its manufacturing process. Harper paid for the equipment with funds borrowed from Eastern Bank. Harper gave Eastern a security agreement and financing statement covering Harper’s existing and after-acquired equipment. On June 21, Harper was petitioned involuntarily into bankruptcy under Chapter 7 of the Federal Bankruptcy Code. A bankruptcy trustee was appointed. On June 23, Eastern filed the financing statement. Which of the parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment?
A. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the filing of the financing statement after the commencement of the bankruptcy case would be deemed a preferential transfer.
B. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the trustee became a lien creditor before Eastern perfected its security interest.
C. Eastern, because it had a perfected purchase money security interest without having to file a financing statement.
D. Eastern, because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Answer:</u>
Eastern parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Eastern has a higher security interest because Eastern amended its security interest inside the allowable time deadlines. A perfected security interest in any security interest in an asset that cannot be demanded by any other party.
Below the Uniform Commercial Code (U.C.C.), to perfect a security interest, a lender has 10 days from the date of the sale of material to perfect the security interest by filing a financing statement. Possessing registered in the 10-day limit, Eastern has a strong perfected security interest in the material and after-acquired things even though the bankruptcy was recorded two days ahead.
Answer:
responsibilities scope
Explanation:
Keiko is describing responsibilities for each team member so each one knowns what is expected from them
Answer: $1000
Explanation:
First, we calculate the amount if bad debt expense which will be:
= 3% × $50000
= $1500
Therefore, the balance of accounts receivable at the end of the first year will be:
= Amount of bad debts expense - Account written off
= $1500 - $500
= $1000
Answer:
D. lowers the discount rate but not if it auctions more credit
Explanation:
Discount rate adjustment and Federal Reserve's auction have the following effects on reserves.
Discount rate adjustment: a <em>higher discount rate</em> will encourage investment in the US economy, thus leading to <em>increased reserves</em> as investment inflows increase.
On the other hand, a <em>lower discount rate</em> encourages investment outflow into other jurisdictions with higher yields, <em>thus reducing reserves</em>.
Auction: <em>auctioning more credit</em> will result in the movement of investment flows into the Federal Reserve (<em>an increase in reserves</em>) as investors invest in auctions. Vice versa.
Therefore, a mix of lower discount rate and not auctioning more credit will result in lower reserves.
