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Elan Coil [88]
2 years ago
13

Solve the inequality x+1<3/4 and write the solution in interval notation.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Darya [45]2 years ago
3 0

The solution to the inequality in interval form is (-∞, -1/4)

<h3>Inequality expressions</h3>

Inequality are expressions not separates by an equal sign. Given the inequality below;

x+1<3/4

Subtract 1 from both sides to have;

x + 1 - 1 < 3/4 - 1

x < 3/4 - 1

x < (3-4)/4

x < -1/4

Hence the solution to the inequality in interval form is (-∞, -1/4)

Learn more on inequality here: brainly.com/question/24372553

#SPJ1

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Christina also plans on leaving her $10,000 invested for 20 years. Write an equation representing her investment’s value, y, aft
kaheart [24]

The required equation is y = 10000(1.0.25)^2x. The value of Christina’s investment after 20 years is $30,773.14

Compound interest

The interest accrued on a sum of money is known as interest. The formula for calculating the compound interest is expressed as:

y = y0(1+r/n)^nx

where

x is the time taken

r is the rate in decimal

n is the compounding time


Given the following

x = 20 years

n  2(semi annually)

r  = 5.7% = 0.057

Substitute

y = 10000(1+0.057/2)^2(20)
y = 10,000(1 + 0.0285)^40

y = 10000(1.0285)^40
y = 30,773.14

Hence the value of Christina’s investment after 20 years is $30,773.14

Learn more on compound interest here: brainly.com/question/24924853

4 0
2 years ago
Please help with this problem!
Dovator [93]

Answer:

x+14

Step-by-step explanation:

(12+x)+2

12+x+2

x+(12+2)

x+14

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
hi im a kid named tyler uzing mi big broters acont to ask this qwestion. wats 46+13? tanks for the help
amm1812

Answer:

59

Step-by-step explanation:

ur welcome

6 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
Count twenty of fifty equal parts
kondaur [170]

Answer:

I think 20/50 is the answer you're looking.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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