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Solnce55 [7]
2 years ago
5

Allowance for doubtful accounts is classified as a(n) ______ account and has a normal ______ balance.

Business
1 answer:
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]2 years ago
3 0

Allowance for doubtful accounts is classified as a(n)  contra asset  account and has a normal  <u>credit </u>balance.

<h3>What is contra asset?</h3>

In a general ledger, a contra account is used to lower the value of a linked account when the two are netted together. The natural balance of a contra account is the inverse of the related account. The contra account records a credit if the connected account's natural balance is a debit. As an illustration, accumulated depreciation serves as the contra account for a fixed asset.

An account used in a general ledger to lower the value of a connected account is called a contra account.

They can be used to report a decrease or write-down in a different contra account that nets to the current book value while maintaining the historical value in the main account.

To learn more about contra asset from the given link:

brainly.com/question/15610334

#SPJ4

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An investor currently holds stock in Giggle Corporation and is considering buying stock in either Macrosoft Corporation or Facep
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Portfolio diversification is the process of holding different asset and security classes in order to minimise the non systemic risk of the portfolio

Correlation is a statistical measure used to measure the relationship that exists between two variables.

1. Positive correlation : it mean that the two variables move in the same direction. If one variable increases, the other variable also increases. It increases the risk of the portfolio

For example, there should be a positive correlation between quantity supplied and price

When there is a positive correlation, the graph of the variables is upward sloping

2. Negative correlation :  it mean that the two variables move in different direction. If one variable increases, the other variable decreases. It decreases the risk of the portfolio

For example, there should be a negative correlation between quantity demanded and price

When there is a negative correlation, the graph of the variables is downward sloping

3. Zero correlation : there is no relationship between the variables. It decreases the risk of the portfolio

3 0
3 years ago
AJ's Markets is being liquidated. The mortgage holder is owed $830,000, the other secured creditors are owed $128,000, and the u
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

B. $.025

Explanation:

Calculation to determine How much will the unsecured creditors receive per each dollar they are owed

First step is to determine the Mortgage unsecured

Mortgage unsecured = $830,000 -$794,000

Mortgage unsecured= $36,000

Second step is to calculate the Funds available after expenses

Funds available after expenses = $467,000 - $330,000

Funds available after expenses = $137,000

Third step is to calculate the Funds available after secured claims

Funds available after secured claims = $137,000 - $128,000

Funds available after secured claims= $9,000

Fourth step is to calculate the Total unsecured claims

Total unsecured claims = $36,000 + $329,000 Total unsecured claims = $365,000

Now let determine Percent unsecured claims paid

Percent unsecured claims paid = $9,000 / $365,000

Percent unsecured claims paid= .025*100

Percent unsecured claims paid=2.5%

Therefore the amount of that the unsecured creditors receive per each dollar they are owed will be $.025

7 0
2 years ago
Rasheed works for Company A, earning $299,000 in salary during 2019. Assuming he is single and has no other sources of income, w
Vaselesa [24]

Answer:

$13,466

Explanation:

For 2019, the wage limit for Social Security tax is $132900

Thus;

Social Security tax $132,900x 6.2% = $8,239.80

Medicare tax = $299,000 x 1.45% = $4335.50

Additional Medicare Tax ($299,000 - $200000) x 0.9% = $891

therefore,

Amount of FICA Tax = $8239.80 + $4335.50 + $891 = $13,466.30 which is approximately $13,466

6 0
3 years ago
While gambling at Prairie Meadows Casino, Troy Blackford became angry and smashed a slot machine. He was banned from the premise
ra1l [238]

Answer:

There is no contract, he has been banned for life

Explanation:

Troy and the casino had no contract. Troy black Ford had no business going back to gamble in the casino because he had already been banned for life for destroying a slot machine. So except this ban had been lifted by prairie meadows, there was no way he could argue that he had a contract and then win the case. Prairie meadows made him no offers so as a result there could be no contract.

3 0
3 years ago
A bank has written a call option on one stock and a put option on another stock. For the first option the stock price is 50, the
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

10-Day 99% VaR = 3.61

Explanation:

Data Given:

For First Option:

Stock Price = 50

Strike Price = 51

Volatility = 28% per annum

Time to maturity = 9 months

For Second Option:

Stock Price = 20

Strike Price = 19

Volatility = 25% per annum

Time to maturity = 12 months or 1 year

Risk Free Rate = 6% per annum

Correlation = 0.4

Find 10-day 99% VaR.

Solution:

First of all we need to refer the DerivaGem Model to dig out the change in price equation for both the options.

So, according to DerivaGem Model, We have following data:

For First Option:

Value  = -5.413

Delta Value = -0.589

For Second Option:

Value = -1.014

Delta = -0.284

Change in Price = (Delta value of First Option x Stock Price)Y1 + (Delta value of the second option x Stock Price)Y2

Change in Price = (-0.589 x 50)Y1 + (-0.284 x 20)Y2

So, We will get the Change in Price Linear Equation for both the options.

Change in Price = -29.45Y1 -5.68Y2

Now, we have to calculate the Daily Volatility Percentage.

Formula:

Daily Volatility Percentage = Volatility/ Square root of number of days active in annum

Number of Days Active = 252

Volatility for First Option = 28%

Volatility for Second Option = 25%

Daily Volatility Percentage for First Option = 28%/\sqrt{252}

Daily Volatility Percentage for First Option = 0.0176

Similarly,

Daily Volatility Percentage for Second Option = 25%/\sqrt{252}

Daily Volatility Percentage for Second Option = 0.0157

Now, utilizing the above calculated data, we can find the one-day variance of change in price.

1-Day Variance =(29.45^{2} *0.0176^{2}) + (5.68^{2} * 0.0157^{2}) - (2 * 29.45 * 0.0176 * 5.68 * 0.0157 * 0.4)

Solving the above equation:

We get:

1-Day Variance = 0.2396

Now, we have to find the standard deviation of 1-Day Variance:

SD of 1-Day Variance = \sqrt{0.2396}

SD of 1-Day Variance = 0.4895

So,

Now, in order to find the value of one day 99% VaR from the table, we have all the prerequisites.

So,

Value of One day 99% VaR from table = 2.33

But we need 10-Day 99% VaR.

So, number of days = 10

Hence,

10-Day 99% VaR = 0.4895 * 2.33 * \sqrt{10}

10-Day 99% VaR = 3.61

8 0
2 years ago
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