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8 months ago

Opportunity costs at a manufacturing company are not part of manufacturing overhead. True or false?.

Business

1 answer:

Bess [88]8 months ago

6 0

It is true that Opportunity costs at a manufacturing company are not part of manufacturing overhead.

<h3>What is Opportunity costs ?</h3>

Opportunity costs can be described as the term that represent the potential benefits which individual, investor, misses out in the process of choosing one alternative over another.

Because opportunity costs are unseen can be easily overlooked, therefore, in this case, It is true that Opportunity costs at a manufacturing company are not part of manufacturing overhead.

Learn more on Opportunity costs at:

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Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

Contribution Margin is 51.875%

Explanation:

Contribution Margin = Contribution/Selling Price × 100

<u>Contribution</u>

Contribution = Selling Price/ unit - Variable Costs/ Unit

Selling Price $80.00

<em>Less Variable Costs</em>

Raw Materials ($25.00)

Direct Labour (45mins/60mins×$18) ($13.50)

Contribution ($41.50)

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$41.50/$80.00×100=51.875%

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2 years ago

At the beginning of the current period, Bramble Corp. had balances in Accounts Receivable of $196,800 and in Allowance for Doubt

olasank [31]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. Account receivable Dr $864,300

To Sales revenue $864,300

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cash Dr $687,610

To Account receivable $687,610

(Being the collections is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful debts $6,804

To Account receivable $6,804

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Account receivable Dr $3,219

To Allowance for doubtful debts $3,219

(Being the previous written off amount is recorded)

Cash Dr $3,219

To Account receivable $3,219

(Being the recovery is recorded)

4. Bad debt expense $18,075

To Allowance for doubtful debts $18,075

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $24,000 - $9,510 + $6,804 - $3,219

= $18,075

Only these entries are recorded

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2 years ago

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Answer:

The present value of cash flows is $ 5,292.13

Explanation:

The present value is today's equivalence of the company's future cash flow discounted using the 7% interest rate as a discount rate.

Formula for pv of a cash flow=cash flow/(1+r)^n

r is the 7% interest rate

n is the relevant year each cash flow relates to

PV=$1,350/(1+7%)^1+$1550/(1+7%)^2+$1550/(1+7%)^3+$1850/(1+7%)^4=

$ 5,292.13

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2 years ago

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Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

I am sure that it is D. a large cap stock

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2 years ago

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