Answer:
$170 million
Explanation:
First we must calculate the implied fair value of goodwill:
fair value of goodwill = Sanchez's fair value - Sanchez's asset valuation = $1,020 million - $900 million = $120 million
impairment loss = recorded goodwill - fair value of goodwill = $290 million - $120 million = $170 million
An impairment loss is a loss generated by the decline of an asset's fair value.
Answer:B. if transaction costs are low, private bargaining will result in an efficient solution to the problem of externalities.
Explanation:
The coarse theorem:
If there is a conflict between parties this will lead to an effecient results irrespective of who won the right to the property as long as the transaction cost related to the price negotiation is insignificant.
The new-product process stage of market testing involves two items -
- Using realistic purchase conditions to see if consumers will buy
- Exposing actual products to prospective consumers
- To find out how well a product, service, or offering will perform, one can conduct market research.
- It often consists of research studies that seek to provide answers to concerns about how the market will respond to the introduction of the product.
- Convenience goods, shopping goods, specialty products, and unsought goods are the four categories of products, and each is categorized according to consumer preferences, pricing, and product features.
- Let's explore each of them in more depth.
How many steps are in the new product development process multiple choice question?
- The process of bringing a brand-new product idea to market is known as new product development (NPD).
- It can be roughly divided into seven stages: ideation, research, planning, prototype, sourcing, costing, and commercialization, though it varies by industry.
Learn more about new product development (NPD) brainly.com/question/26679051
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Answer:
Ans. The effective annual interest rate charged on the loan is 12.99% effective annually. (Please see the attached excel spread sheet)
Explanation:
Hi, attached is the amortization table that I made for this case. Notice that there is a yellow and green cell, the yellow one is the result of using the "IRR" function of MS Excel which provides an effective monthly rate, since the payments are made every month, then we have to transform that monthly effective rate into an effective annual rate, this is the formula to use.
That is:
Which we round to 12.99% effective annually.
Finally, notice that I didnt use the payments to find the effective rate, I used the cash flow, that was because you didn´t receive all the 100K (the fee, remember?), you received $98,000.
Best of luck.
Answer:
Allocated MOH= $432,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Predetermined overhead rate of $8.00 per machine-hour
Actual machine-hours worked= 54,000 hours
<u>To calculate the allocated overhead, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 8*54,000
Allocated MOH= $432,000
