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ankoles [38]
2 years ago
13

When the opportunity cost associated with increasing the production of one good or service in terms of another is constant at ev

ery level of production, then the production possibility frontier is:_________
Business
1 answer:
amid [387]2 years ago
7 0

When the opportunity cost associated with increasing the production of one good or service in terms of another is constant at every level of production, then the production possibility frontier is Linear.

Opportunity costs address the potential advantages that an individual, financial backer, or business passes up while picking one option over another. Since opportunity costs are inconspicuous by definition, they can be barely noticeable.

Opportunity Costs= Absolute Income - Monetary Benefit.

The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) is a bend on a chart that shows the potential amounts that can be delivered for two items if both rely on a similarly limited asset for their production. The PPF is additionally alluded to as the creation probability bend.

To learn more about Production Possibility Frontier is linear.

brainly.com/question/22527871

#SPJ4

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A hardware buyer plans to purchase 75 ladders which will retail for $35 each. He has already placed an order for 48 ladders at $
Anarel [89]

Answer:

<em>The most he can pay for each of the remaining ladders if he is to obtain a 48% markup goal is </em><em>$36.357</em><em>.</em>

Explanation:

  • <em>A hardware buyer plans to purchase 75 ladders which will retail for $35 each. </em>This means that he is going to sell each ladder for $35, regardless of how much he paid for them before.
  • <em>He has already placed an order for 48 ladders at $16.50 each</em>. So out of the 75 ladders he is planning to purchase and then sell, he bought 48 at a reduced price of only $16.50 each. Now if we subtract those numbers, as shown below, we determine that he still needs to buy 27 more ladders at an unknown price:

<em>(75 - 48) ladders = 27 ladders</em>

  • <em>What is the most he can pay for each of the remaining ladders if he is to obtain a 48% markup goal? </em>So we need to determine the maximum price for each of the remaining 27 ladders if he is to obtain a 48% markup goal.

<em>Markup </em><em>in this case is just a measure of the ratio (in %) between the profit made </em>(by selling 75 ladders for $35 each)<em> to the cost paid </em>(by buying 48 of them at $16.5 each and 27 of them at an unknown price). Its formula is as follows:

Markup=\frac{Profit}{Cost}*100

Now, we already have our markup goal of 48%, so we can substitute that number into the formula, and divide both sides of the equation by 100:

48=\frac{Profit}{Cost}*100\\0.48=\frac{Profit}{Cost}\\\frac{Profit}{Cost}=0.48

We know that Cost is the sum of what he paid for the 48 ladders, <em>plus </em>what he is to pay for the remaining 27 ladders, so it should look something like this:

Cost=(48ladders*16.5\frac{dollars}{ladder} )+(27ladders*x)

Cost=(792 dollars)+(27ladders*x)

Where '<em>x</em>' is the maximum price he can pay for each of the remaining 27 ladders if he is to obtain a 48% markup goal.

We should also know that Profit is what he gets by selling the 75 ladders, <em>minus </em>the cost paid for them. It should look something like this:

Profit=(75ladders*35\frac{dollars}{ladder} )-[(792dollars)+(27ladders*x)]

Profit=(2625dollars)-[(792dollars)+(27ladders*x)]\\Profit=(2625dollars)-(792dollars)-(27ladders*x)\\Profit=(1833dollars)-(27ladders*x)

Next, we want to substitute what we have so far for Cost and Profit into the worked Markup formula we had written before, and solve the equation by isolating our '<em>x</em>'. To do that, let's follow these steps:

\frac{Profit}{Cost}=0.48

\frac{(1833dollars)-(27ladders*x)}{(792 dollars)+(27ladders*x)}=0.48\\1833dollars-27ladders*x=0.48*[792 dollars+27ladders*x]\\1833dollars-27ladders*x=380.16dollars+12.96ladders*x

At this point, <em>we want to transfer the 'x' terms to one side of the equation, and the other terms to the other side</em>, so we get to the answer:

1833dollars-380.16dollars=12.96ladders*x+27ladders*x\\1452.84dollars=(12.96+27)ladders*x\\1452.84dollars=39.96ladders*x

Finally, we divide both sides of the equation by 39.96 ladders:

\frac{1452.84dollars}{39.96ladders} =x\\36.357\frac{dollars}{ladders}=x\\x=36.357\frac{dollars}{ladders}

So the most he can pay for each of the remaining ladders if he is to obtain a 48% markup goal is $36.357. That means that even if he buys the remaining ladders for a higher price than what he is willing to sell them for, he still obtains a 48% markup goal.

7 0
3 years ago
Demand is variable and the company wants to build a safety stock into R. The average daily demand is 15, the lead time is 3 days
olya-2409 [2.1K]

Answer:

Average daily demand (d) = 15

Lead time (L) = 3 days

Value of Z = 2

Standard deviation of demand during lead time = 5

Reorder point = d × L + (Z × standard deviation of demand during lead time)

= 15 × 3 + (2 × 5)

= 45 + 10

= 55

8 0
3 years ago
Coaches can receive a bonus from the booster club at the conclusion of a season.
inna [77]

Answer:

The statement is true

Explanation:

Booster club is the organization which is formed in order to support the organization, associated club and sports team. The club support through coordinating events or raising the funds.

So, yes, the coaches are legally could receive the bonus from the booster club at the season conclusion as the booster clubs are not state funded, so they are intended to use the money for the school resources.

And there is no legal matter is involves with giving the coaches bonuses as the booster club raise the fund from the extra circular activities.

 

4 0
3 years ago
1 Which is an example of a short-term investment?
Furkat [3]

Explanation:

Short-term investments, also known as marketable securities or temporary investments, are those which can easily be converted to cash, typically within 5 years. ... Some common examples of short term investments include CDs, money market accounts, high-yield savings accounts, government bonds and Treasury bills.

.........................................PLS MARK AS BRAINLIEST..............................

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A. The Gini ratio is:
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

A. (a, the area between the diagonal line and the lorenz curve divided by the total area below the diagonal line)

B. (a, a perfectly unequal income distribution will have a Gini ration of 1.)

C. (a, more equal)

Explanation:

A. Gini ratio can be defined as the statistical determination of the wealth and income distribution among a country's populace.

It can also be called Gini coefficient or Gini index, and it is a measure of the inequality in income and wealth distribution.

The Gini ration is calculated by finding the difference between the Lorenz curve and the uniform distribution line, then divided by the total area under the uniform distribution line. A Gini ration of <0.2 is the perfect income equality.

B. Gini ratio cannot exceed 1 because a perfectly unequal income distribution will have a Gini ratio of 1. This means that the line of equality does not move irrespective of whether or not the Lorenz curve changes.

C. If the Gini ratio declines from 0.42 to 0.35, then that means that income has become more equal. Note that a Gini ratio of <0.2 signifies a perfect income distribution, slightly greater than 0.2 to ).35 signifies that income distribution is close to equality.

Cheers.

3 0
3 years ago
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