Answer:
D, value-based marketing
Explanation:
Value-based marketing -
The process of selling goods or services , when marketing is done to the customer's ethics and value , in order to orient the customer to buy a specific goods or services .
It shifts the marketing towards customer-centric from product-centric .
Hence , from the question , Trey is selling products by Value-based marketing .
<h3>Hello there!</h3>
Your question asks what order does a activity-based costing system work by.
<h3>Answer: b, c, a, d</h3>
The order:
1. b). Identify activities and estimate their total indirect costs.
2. c). Identify the allocation base for each activity and estimate the total quantity of each allocation base.
3. a). Compute the predetermined overhead allocation rate for each activity.
4. d). Allocate indirect costs to the cost object.
The reason why the answer choice "b, c, a, d" is the correct answer because that's the correct order for the activity-based costing system.
The activity-based costing system first identifies the activities that are going on and find the indirect cost, then identifies the allocation base for the activities that are occurring to find the quantity of the allocation base, then solve the pre-determined rate of allocation for each activity, and finally get the indirect cost for the object.
<h3>I hope this helps!</h3><h3>Best regards,</h3><h3>MasterInvestor</h3>
Well the answer is quite easy just count From 170 to 180 and that leaves u with 10 so ur answer is ten
Answer:
Explanation:
In finance, short selling (also known as shorting or going short) is the practice of selling assets, that have been borrowed from a third party with the intention of buying identical assets back at a later date to return to the lender.
So in the given scenario the investor would be at lose of
Selling price = 3.74 per bushel
Purchase price = 3.61 per bushel
therefore lose of $ 0.13 per bushel you need to pay off.
Answer:
$414.64
Explanation:
For computing the value of zero-coupon bond we need to apply the present value formula i.e to be shown in the attachment
Given that,
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 9% ÷ 2 = 4.5%
NPER = 10 years × 2 = 20 years
PMT = $0
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after applying the above formula, the present value is $414.64