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Vesna [10]
1 year ago
11

jason says you can solve an inequality by replacing the inequality sign with an equal sign and putting it back in after solving

the equation. do you agree?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Dahasolnce [82]1 year ago
4 0

Jason is incorrect, because inequality signs change when we multiply/divide by negative numbers, and we need to follow the signs to make sure we use the correct one.

<h3></h3><h3>Is Jason correct whit his claim?</h3>

Well, Jason says that you can solve an inequality by replacing the sign by an equal sign, solve the equation as you already have done a thousand times, and then put the inequality sign again.

Now, this is clearly incorrect, because inequalities have a really nice property. If you multiply or divide both sides of the inequality by a negative number, then the "direction" of the sign changes.

This means that if we have an inequality like:

-2x > 10

And we divide both sides by -2, we should get:

x < 10/-2

x < -5

Where the direction of the sign changed.

If you did what Jason said, the direction of that sign would not have changed, and thus, you would have got an incorrect solution for the inequality.

If you want to learn more about inequalities:

brainly.com/question/24372553

#SPJ1

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