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svetlana [45]
1 year ago
13

Add Solve: n + 7 = 31

Mathematics
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

n = 24

Explanation:

The initial expression is:

n + 7 = 31

So, to solve the equation, we need to subtract 7 from both sides:

n + 7 - 7 = 31 - 7

n = 24

Therefore, the solution is n = 24

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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
Brand A: $5 for 80 pounds of sand Brand B: $14 for 175 pound bag Which is the better buy?
nevsk [136]

Answer:

Brand A is the better buy

Step-by-step explanation:

bag Which is the better buy?

Step one

Brand A: $5 for 80 pounds of sand

Let us find the unit cost

Unit cost =5/80

=$0.0625 per pound

Brand B: $14 for 175 pound

The unit cost is

=14/175

=$0.08 per pound

4 0
3 years ago
The linear equation y=-2x+3 has a positive slope of 2, true or false ?
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is -2/1 AKA -2 so it is negative

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent 10 (6x + 15) - 3? A. -2x + 12 B. 2x + 2 C. -2x - 2 D. -2x -8​
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

60x+147

Step-by-step explanation:

10(6x+15)-3

60x+150-3

60x+147

7 0
3 years ago
Simplify the following expression. Write the result using positive exponents only. Assume that all bases are not equal to 0.
Levart [38]
Photo math is ya bestfriend
1/ x^40y^45
4 0
3 years ago
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