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Yakvenalex [24]
8 months ago
10

the burden of a tax falls entirely on sellers if group of answer choices the price elasticity of demand is unitary elastic the p

rice elasticity of supply is zero (perfectly inelastic) the price elasticity of supply is greater than 1 the income elasticity of demand is high
Business
1 answer:
nadezda [96]8 months ago
8 0

B) If the price elasticity of demand is zero, then all of the tax burdens fall on the sellers (perfectly inelastic).

<h3><u>How does price elasticity work?</u></h3>

A measure of a product's consumption change in response to a price change is called price elasticity of demand. Price elasticity is a tool used by economists to analyze how changes in a product's price affect its supply and demand. Supply has an elasticity similar to demand, and it's called the price elasticity of supply.

The relationship between a change in supply and a change in price is referred to as price elasticity of supply. By dividing the percentage change in quantity supplied by the percentage change in price, it is determined. What products are produced at what prices depends on the interaction of the two elasticities.

Learn more about price elasticity with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/13565779

#SPJ4

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An asset falling under the MACRS five-year class was purchased three years ago for $200,000 (its original depreciation basis). C
Nitella [24]

Answer:

(a) The cash flows is $59,040.

(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the  Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

Accumulated depreciation = Cost of the asset * Accumulated depreciation rate =  $200,000 * 71.20% = $142,400

Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $60,000 - $57,600 = $2,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $2,400 * 40% = $960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $60,000 - $960 = $59,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $59,040 net sales proceeds.

(b) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $80,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $80,000 - $57,600 = $22,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $22,400 * 40% = $8,960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $80,000 - $8,960 = $71,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $71,040 net sales proceeds.

3 0
3 years ago
A good place to begin an interior structure inspection is the A. basement. B. garage. C. attic. D. plumbing system.
sweet-ann [11.9K]
It is A the basement.
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3 0
3 years ago
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What is the Total Cost of a stock purchase if the stock price is $12, shares purchased 100, with a 2% Broker's Fee? (Stock Price
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It's a so I need 20 characters hhhhhhh
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3 years ago
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Sanjay is a manager at Ridgeway Appliance Corp. and is responsible for helping the company reach its goal of purchasing a manufa
xeze [42]

Answer:

effectiveness

Explanation:

<em>Effectiveness </em>is the essential pillar of business management. Commonly mistaken for efficacy, it isn't quite the same thing. Effectiveness is doing the right thing that helps achieve business goals, while efficacy is how the practice is performed, rationally using available resources. Since the example emphasizes Sanjay's plan that will help the company reach business goals, it is an effectiveness example.

3 0
3 years ago
Heritage, Inc., had a cost of goods sold of $44,621. At the end of the year, the accounts payable balance was $8,403. How long o
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

Days sales in payable = 68.74 days(Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Cost of goods sold = $44,621

Accounts payable = $8,403

Days sales in payable = ?

Computation of Days sales in payable :

Days\ sales\ in\ payables=(Accounts\ payable\/cost\ of\ goods\ sold)\times365\ days

Days sales in payable = ($8,403 / $44,621) × 365 days

Days sales in payable = 0.188319401 × 365 days  

Days sales in payable = 68.7365814

Days sales in payable = 68.74 days(Approx)

7 0
2 years ago
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