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sveta [45]
1 year ago
8

Kenneth Company uses activity-based costing. It budgets $1,650,000 of overhead cost to sustainably dispose of 6,600 tons of haza

rdous waste. The company disposed of 10 tons of hazardous waste in completing Job 125. Allocate overhead cost to the hazardous waste disposal as part of Job 125 using activity-based costing. Multiple Choice $2,500 $2,750 $3,000 $3,250 $3,500
Business
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]1 year ago
5 0

The cost of hazardous waste disposal as part of Job 125 using activity-based costs is $2,500.

<em>$1,650,000 / 6,600 tons = $250/tonHazardous waste disposal = 10 tons × $250 per ton = $2,500</em>

<em />

<em />

A company is a prison entity shaped by means of a group of individuals to engage in and function as a commercial enterprise—business or business—organization.

A company may be organized in various ways for tax and monetary legal responsibility functions depending on the company law of its jurisdiction.

There are 3 not unusual varieties of companies—sole proprietorship, partnership, and business enterprise—and each comes with its very own set of blessings and downsides.

Learn more about the company here:-brainly.com/question/24448358

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Better Chocolates has a new project that requires $838,000 of equipment. What is the depreciation in Year 6 of this project if t
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

d. $74,749.60 ( depreciation allowance @ 8.92% )

Explanation:

Under Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System the Office furniture and fixtures, agricultural machinery and equipment, any other property not associated with another class is classified as 7-years property.

These assets are depreciated as follows:

Year         Percentage Depreciate

  1                              14.29%

  2                             24.49%

  3                             17.49%

  4                             12.49%

  5                             8.93%

  6                             8.92%

  7                             8.93%

  8                             4.46%

In the Sixth year depreciation will be charged by 8.92%.

Asset Value = $838,000

Depreciation Allowance in 6th year = $838,000 x 8.92%

Depreciation Allowance in 6th year = $74749.60

*Option for the given Mcqs are missing and written as follows:

Select one:

a. $80,411.60

b. $74,833.40

c. $89,108.00

d. $74,749.60

e. $89,327.08

4 0
3 years ago
Twilight Company uses the aging of accounts receivable method to estimate Bad Debt Expense. The balance of each account receivab
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

a.                          Acct. receivable   % uncollectible   Est. uncollectible

1-30 days old           $63,000                      3%                    $1,890

31-90 days old         $12,000                      14%                   $1,680

> 90 days old           $5,000                       37%                  <u>$1,850</u>

                                                                   Total                   <u>$5,420</u>

b. Date   General journal                                         Debit    Credit

Dec 31    Bad debts expenses                                $5,150

                      Allowance for doubtful accounts                   $5,150

              ($5,420 - $270)

6 0
3 years ago
I need help with question 1 and 2!!
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5 0
3 years ago
Five thousand bonds with a face value of $1000 each, are sold at 110. The entry to record the issuance is
Contact [7]

Answer:

Date, bonds sold at a premium

Dr Cash 5,500,000

    Cr Bonds payable 5,000,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 500,000

Explanation:

The total face value of the bonds is $1,000 x 5,000 bonds = $5,000,000

since the bonds were sold at 110, their price was $5,000,000 x 110% = $5,500,000

the difference between the face value and the actual market price = $5,500,000 - $5,000,000 = $500,000 must be recorded as premium on bonds payable (increases the bonds' carrying value)

4 0
3 years ago
Assume that the risk-free rate of interest is 6% and the expected rate of return on the market is 16%. A share of stock sells fo
Tju [1.3M]

Answer: Price of stock at year end =$53

Explanation:

we first compute the Expected rate of return using the CAPM FORMULAE that

Expected return =risk-free rate + Beta ( Market return - risk free rate)

Expected return=6% + 1.2 ( 16%-6%)

Expected return= 0.06 + 1.2 (10%)

Expected return=0.06+ 0.12

Expected return=0.18

Using the formulae Po= D1 / R-g  to find the growth rate

Where Po= current price of stock at $50

D1= Dividend at $6 at end of year

R = Expected return = 0.18

50= 6/ 0.18-g

50(0.18-g) =6

9-50g=6

50g=9-6

g= 3/50

g=0.06 = 6%

Now that we have gotten the growth rate and expected return, we can now determine the price the investors are expected to sell the stock at the end of year.

Price of stock = D( 1-g) / R-g

= 6( 1+0.06)/ 0.18 -0.06

=6+0.36/0.12

=6.36/0.12=  $53

3 0
3 years ago
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