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Schach [20]
1 year ago
11

When an employee works in year 1 but is paid in year 2, the company must recognize an expense in years) ______.

Business
1 answer:
Ivanshal [37]1 year ago
4 0

When an employee works in year 1 but is paid in year 2, the company must recognize an expense in years 1 only.

An expense is the monetary value of tasks that an organization causes to create income. As the well-known saying goes, "it costs cash to bring in cash.

Normal expenses incorporate installments to providers, worker compensation, manufacturing plant leases, and hardware devaluation.

Organizations are permitted to discount charge deductible costs on their annual government forms to bring down their available pay and hence their assessment obligation.

To learn more about Expenses.

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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose there is a shortage in a local market for clean drinking water (assume this market is free and competitive). Which of th
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": The price will not increase but firms will increase the quantity supplied to promote the social interest.

Explanation:

Perfectly competitive markets are characterized by having companies offering an undifferentiated product, being price takers because firms posses a small market share which does not allow them to have a major influence in the price, and by free entry and exit of competitors.

Then, <em>if there is a shortage of clean drinking water in a local market that is perfectly competitive, the shortage would not last much since new producers would enter the market to process water so it can be offered purified. As drinking water is a basic good, the number of organizations entering the market is likely to be substantial.</em>

4 0
3 years ago
A loan is amortized over five years with monthly payments (i.e. end of month) at an annual nominal interest rate of 5% compounde
BlackZzzverrR [31]
Given:
Amortizing period = 5 years
APR=5% per annum
interest rate, i = 0.05/12 per month
number of periods, n = 5*12=60 months (for amortization)
Payment schedule:
$500 at the end of first month,
increased by $20 each month thereafter.
Borrowed amount: not given

Question:  Find outstanding loan balance after the 40th payment.

Solution:
Step 1: First we need to find the amount borrowed, P. 
From the payment schedule, we decompose the payment into two components, 

A. Equivalent uniform monthly payment, As,  for a step amount of G=$20 a month, starting with zero after the first month, for a period of 5 years (n=60).
The value of As can be obtained from a specialized formula for step-payments, 
As=\frac{G((1+i)^{n}-i*n-1)}{i(1+i)^{n}-i}
Substitute values, G=20,i=0.05/12,n=60
As=\frac{20((1+.05/12)^{60}-(.05/12)*60-1)}{(.05/12)(1+.05/12)^{60}-(.05/60)}
=565.0847

B. Principal, Pb, for a uniform monthly payment of A a month
The principal,Pb can be found from the basic amortizing formula to be
Pb=\frac{A((1+i)^{n}-1)}{i(1+i)^{n}}
We have 
Equivalent uniform monthly payment
=500+equivalent uniform payment step amounts
=500+565.0847
=1065.0847
substituting values, A=1065.0847,i=.05/12,n=60
=\frac{1065.0847((1+.05/12)^{60}-1)}{(.05/12)(1+.05/12)^{60}}
=56439.591
check: average monthly payment = 1100
duration: 60 months
total amount paid = 60*1100=66000
average annual interest=((66000-56439)/56439-1)/5=3.3% (~ 5%/2)  ok.

Amount borrowed, P=56439.591

Step 2: Future value of loan at the end of the 40th month.
This can be found by the compound interest formula
F=P(1+i)^n=56439.591(1+0.05/12)^40=66652.416

Step 3: Future value of payments
first we need to find the equivalent monthly payment of the step payments, using the same formula as in step 1, but with n=40
A=\frac{G((1+i)^{n}-i*n-1)}{i(1+i)^{n}-i}
=\frac{20((1+0.05/12)^{40}-(0.05/12)*40-1)}{(0.05/12)(1+0.05/12)^{40}-(0.05/12)}
=378.924
This should be added to the constant payment of $500 a month to give
A=500+378.924=878.924
Future value of monthly payment of 878.924
F=\frac{A((1+i)^{n}-1)}{i}
Substitute values, A=878.924, i=0.05/12, n=40
=\frac{878.924((1+0.05/12)^{40}-1)}{0.05/12}
=38170.213

Step 4: Outstanding balance right after the 40th payment
=future value of loan - future value of payments
=66652.416-38170.213
=28482.20

Answer: Outstanding balance after the 40th payment is $28482.20
7 0
3 years ago
A donor gave equipment valued at $60,000 at the beginning of 2017 to a private not-for-profit organization. The equipment had a
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

Usually the nonprofit organization should report the value of the donated asset as the difference between the price when donated minus depreciation: $60,000 - $6,000 = $54,000.

But nonprofit organization can choose to recognize only a part of the donation each year as long as they use the asset. This recognized part is usually equivalent to the depreciation cost, so the value of the asset at the end of the year will always be 0. They do this to show smaller balances in order to try to attract more donations. It is always harder for wealthy nonprofit organizations to get more donations, so be having 0 assets donated, they pretend to be "poorer".

4 0
4 years ago
You own a portfolio that has four stocks: A, B, C, and D. The portfolio has 50% of your money in stock A, 10% in B, 15% in C, an
Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

WB = BA(WA) + BB(WB) + BC (WC) + BD(WD)

               1.6 = 0.83(0.5) + 1.50(0.1) + 1.42(0.15) + BD(0.25)

               1.6 = 0.415 + 0.15 + 0.213 + 0.25BD

                1.6 = 0.778 + 0.25BD

             1.6-0.778 = 0.25BD

                 0.822  = 0.25BD

                     BD   = 0.822/0.25

                     BD = 3.288

Explanation: The question relates to Beta of a portfolio. The Beta of a portfolio is the aggregate of Beta of each stock multiplied by the weight of each stock. The Beta of stock D was not given, thus, it becomes the subject of the formula.

3 0
3 years ago
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