Answer:
The probability is 1.
Explanation:
Despite that the he distribution is positively skewed, the distribution of sample means of one-bedroom apartments will still be a a normal distribution based on Central Limit Theorem.
Since we have
μ = mean = 2200
SD = standard deviation = 250
n = sample size = 50
Therefore,
Standard error = SD ÷ √n
= 250 ÷ √50
= 250 ÷ 7.07106781186548
= 35.3553390593274 approximately 35.36
Standardize xbar to z = (xbar - μ) ÷ (SD ÷ √n)
Therefore, we have:
P(xbar > 1,950) = P(z > (1,950 - 2200) ÷ 35.36)
= P(z > - 250 ÷ 35.36)
= P(z > -7.07) = 1
Therefore, the probability of selecting a sample of 50 one bedroom apartments is 1 which can be said to be certain.
Answer: tell them what you observe and sometimes you will have to reward them such as candies in order to show them that they did a splendid job. This will let them realize that they did a great job.
Explanation:
Answer:
The dirty price of a bond is referred to:
- The actual price of the bond.
- Also the cash flows in futureand its values.
Explanation:
Dirty price of bond: The dirty price of bond is referred to the actual and present value of the bond.
Also is referred to the present value of the bonds or the future cash flows.
In financial terms a dirty price of bond is said to be the bond's price which is including all the interests which has been added up since the most recent payment of the coupon.
Price quote of a bond: The price quote of a bond is referred to bond's clean price as it does not affects or reflects on all the interests which have been calculated for the bond since of its most recent coupon payment.
Bonds gets always quotes in terms of clean price but the financial investos always pay them in terms of Dirty price until the bond has to be purchased on the given date of coupon's payment.
Answer:
AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery
No No
The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.
The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.
The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.
For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)
Explanation:
