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1 year ago

What is the converse of t > r

Mathematics

1 answer:

Anettt [7]1 year ago

6 0

The converse of t > r is r > t

<h3>What is a converse statement?</h3>

A converse statement is determined when both the hypothesis and conclusion are reversed or interchanged.

In this condition, the hypothesis is written as the conclusion and the conclusion is changed to be the hypothesis.

If a conditional statement is written as: x → y

The converse is then written as y → x

Where;

x is the hypothesis
y is the conclusion

Given the expression as;

t > r

We can see that;

The variable 't' is the hypothesis
The variable 'r' is the conclusion

The converse will be;

r > t

Hence, the converse is r > t

Learn more about converse statement here:

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Divde 3/4÷5/7 what was the error 5/7÷3/4=5/7*4/3=20/21

Setler79 [48]

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3 years ago

The Washington, DC, region has one of the fastest-growing foreclosure rates in the nation, as 15,613 homes went into foreclosure

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

a) 0.6226 = 62.26% probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the Washington, DC area will go up for foreclosure.

b) 0.7837 = 78.37% probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the nation will go up for foreclosure.

c) The proportion of foreclosures in the Nation is lower than in Washington, which means that with a sample size of 100, it is likely to have a small number(fewer than 2) of foreclosures than Washington DC.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each home, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it goes into foreclosure, or it does not. The probability of a home going into foreclosure is independent of other homes. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

a. What is the probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the Washington, DC area will go up for foreclosure?

The foreclosure rate is 1.31% for the Washington, DC area, which means that $p = 0.0131$

We wanto to find, with $n = 100$ :

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.0131)^{0}.(0.9869)^{100} = 0.2675$

$P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.0131)^{1}.(0.9869)^{99} = 0.3551$

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.2675 + 0.3551 = 0.6226$

0.6226 = 62.26% probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the Washington, DC area will go up for foreclosure.

b. What is the probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the nation will go up for foreclosure?

Foreclosure rate of 0.87% for the nation, which means that $p = 0.0087$ . So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.0087)^{0}.(0.9913)^{100} = 0.4174$

$P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.0087)^{1}.(0.9913)^{99} = 0.3663$

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.4174 + 0.3663 = 0.7837$

0.7837 = 78.37% probability that in a given year, fewer than 2 out of 100 houses in the nation will go up for foreclosure.

c. Comment on the above findings.

The proportion of foreclosures in the Nation is lower than in Washington, which means that with a sample size of 100, it is likely to have a small number(fewer than 2) of foreclosures than Washington DC.

7 0

3 years ago

What is 60 divided by 5 +1 X(12-6)? ....(step by step)what to do

natita [175]

Answer:

5.455

Step by step explanation

Going by BODMAS

Bracket=(12-6)=6

Multiplication =(1*6)=6

Addition=(5+6)=11

Therefore; 60/11=5.455

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4 years ago

According to the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, approximately 7% of U.S. children 4 years of age or youn

Yuliya22 [10]

Answer:

0.337 = 33.7% probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each children, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have a food allergy, or they do not. The probability of a child having food allergy is independent of any other child. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

7% of U.S. children 4 years of age or younger have a food allergy.

This means that $p = 0.07$

A day care program has capacity for 8 children in that age range.

This means that $n = 8$

What is the probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy?

This is P(X = 1).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.07)^{1}.(0.93)^{7} = 0.337$

0.337 = 33.7% probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy.

6 0

3 years ago

I NEED HELP ASAP WHO EVER GIVES CORRECT ANSWER GETS BRAINLEST

-BARSIC- [3]

Answer:

There will be 49 fl oz of Orange Juice and 77 fl oz in total.

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio for Orange Juice to Sparkling Water is 7:4, so for every multiple of 4 your using of water, your using that number times 7 for Orange Juice. We are given the amount of water being used, which is 28 fl oz, so we divide that by 4 to get 7, then we multiply that by 7 for the Orange Juice and get a total of 49 fl oz of Orange Juice. The last step is to add the two totals together to get the grand total, and since we have 49 fl oz of Orange Juice and 28 fl oz or Water, we add those 2 numbers together to get 77 fl oz of Punch.

6 0

3 years ago