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emmasim [6.3K]
1 year ago
11

a bond with a face value of $1,000 has 12 years until maturity, has a coupon rate of 5.4%, and sells for $1,087. what is the yie

ld to maturity if interest is paid once a year? note: do not round intermediate calculations. enter your answer as a percent rounded to 4 decimal places. what is the yield to maturity if interest is paid semiannually? note: do not round intermediate calculations. enter your answer as a percent rounded to 4 decimal places.
Business
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]1 year ago
8 0

If interest is paid annually the YTM is 4.48% and if interest is paid semi annually YTM is 2.24%. YTM means Yield to maturity that is paid on bonds ,to determine YTM we first calculate interest on the bonds which is explained below. Formula for YTM is given in the attachment.

Interest is paid annually
Annual Interest = 1000*5.4% = 54

YTM = [54 +(1000 - 1087)/12] /(1000+1087)/2 = 46.75 /1043.5

YTM = 4.480%

Interest paid semi annually

Interest = 1000*5.4% = 54/2 = 27

YTM = [27 + (1000 -1087)/24] / (1000+1087)/2 = 23.375/1043.5

YTM = 2.240%

In the above equation, time period is 24(12*2) because time period is semi annual.

A fixed-rate investment, such as a bond, has a speculative rate of return or interest known as yield to maturity (YTM), also known as redemption or book yield. The YTM is predicated on the idea or understanding that an investor buys the security at the current market price and retains it until it matures (reaches its full value), as well as the assumption that all interest and coupon payments are made on schedule.

Learn more about bonds here

brainly.com/question/25596583

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What amount needs to be invested today at 6% simple interest in order to have $4000 in 2 years?
garri49 [273]
Data:
A (amount) = ?
P (Principal) = $ 4000
r (rate) = 6% → 0.06
t (time) = 2 years

Formula:
A = P(1+r*t)

Solving:
A = P(1+r*t)
A = 4000(1+0.06*2)
A = 4000(1+0.12)
A = 4000*1.12
\boxed{\boxed{A = \$\:4480}}\end{array}}\qquad\quad\checkmark


4 0
3 years ago
Cranford Company completed and transferred out 2,700 units in May 2016. There were 300 units in the Work-in-Process Inventory on
Lynna [10]

Answer:

The cost of the work transferred-out during May is $18,630

Explanation:

For computing the cost of work transferred, first we have to compute the conversion cost per unit and material cost per unit

The conversion cost per uni = Conversion cost ÷ (transferred units + work in progress)

= $11,160 ÷ (2,700 + 300 × 30%)

= $11,160 ÷ (2,700 + 90)

= $11,160 ÷ 2,790

= $4 per unit

Now, material cost per unit = Material cost ÷ (transferred units + work in progress)

= $8,700 ÷ (2,700+300)

= $8700 ÷ 3,000

= $2.9 per unit

So, total cost of the work transferred is equals to

= Transferred units × conversion cost per unit + transferred units × material cost per unit

= 2,700 × $4 + 2,700 × $2.9

= $10,800 + $7,830

= $18,630

Hence, the cost of the work transferred-out during May is $18,630

6 0
3 years ago
What is tax payable????????
alukav5142 [94]
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3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Instructions: Please make sure that you show all your work when solving the problems. Feel free to make any assumptions whenever
My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The current price = \dfrac{Dividend(D_o) \times (1+ Growth  \ rate) }{\text{Cost of capital -Growth rate}}

15 = \dfrac{0.50 \times (1+ Growth rate)}{8\%-Growth rate}

15 \times (8 -Growth \  rate) = 0.50 +(0.50 \times growth  \  rate)

1.20 - (15 \times Growth \ rate) = 0.50 + (0.50 \times growth \ rate)

0.70 = (15 \times growth  \ rate) \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = \dfrac{0.70}{15.50} \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = 0.04516 \\ \\ Growth  \ rate \simeq 4.52\% \\ \\

2. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend \  payout  \ ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%} \\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5  = \$2.51763

Terminal value year 5 = \dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+0.04516)}{8\%-0.04516}

=$75.526

Discount all potential future cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 +Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no\ of\ years} }

+ \dfrac{Terminal\ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years}} \Bigg)

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$75.526}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg )

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$75.526}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$ 54.1945

As a result, the analysts value the stock at $54.20, which is below their own estimates.

3. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend payout ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%}\\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$2.51763 \\ \\

Terminal value year 5 =\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)\times dividend \ payout \ ratio}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+ 7 \%) \times 20\%}{8\%-7\%}

=$53.8773

Discount all potential cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 + Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no \ of\ years} }+ \dfrac{Terminal \ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years }}   \bigg)

\implies \bigg( \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$53.8773}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg)

\implies \bigg (\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$53.8773}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$39.460

As a result, the price is $39.460, and the other strategy would raise the value of the shareholders. Not this one, since paying a 100% dividend would result in a price of $54.20, which is higher than the current price.

Notice that the third question depicts the situation after 5 years, but the final decision will be the same since we are discounting in current terms. If compounding is used, the future value over 5 years is just the same as the first choice, which is the better option.

The presumption in the second portion is that after 5 years, the steady growth rate would be the same as measured in the first part (1).

8 0
3 years ago
Which standardized metric of output is used to gauge the size and market potential of an economy?
Nadusha1986 [10]

Answer:

The standardized metric of output used to gauge the size and market potential of an economy is the Gross Domestic Product.

Explanation:

The Gross Domestic Product is the value of goods and services that are

produced in a country in a certain time and it is consider an important indicator to analyze the state of a country's economy. The value of the goods and services produced is considered the size of the economy.

Also, as the GDP is an indicator of how the economy is doing, businesses tend to use it to predict if the sector will grow or not.

5 0
3 years ago
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