Answer:
cash                             2,011,446 debit
unamortized bond cost  50,000 debit
             bonds payable               2,000,000 credit
             premium on BP                     61,446 credit
--to record issuance--
# Beg. Carrying //cash   // expense	//Amortization// End.Carrying Value
1	2,061,446  210,000   206144.57	3855.43  2,057,590
2	2,057,590  210,000  205759.02	-4240.98  2,053,349
3	2,053,349  210,000  205334.93	-4665.07  2,048,684
4	2,048,684  210,000  204868.42	-5131.58  2,043,553
5	2,043,553  210,000  204355.26	-5644.74  2,037,908
Bonds payable          1,000,000 debit
premium on BP              24,342 debit
issuance cost expense 25,000 debit
interest expense           51,217.1  debit
loss at redemption        41.959,9 debit
   cash                                                     1,117,500 credit                      
   unarmortized bond issuance cost       25,000 credit
Explanation:
First, we solve the value collected which is the present value of the coupon payment and maturity
 
 
C	210,000.000
time	10
rate	0.1
 
 
PV	$1,290,359.0922 
 
  
  
 Maturity   2,000,000.00 
 time   10.00 
 rate  0.1
  
  
 PV   771,086.58 
 
PV c  $  1,290,359.0922 
PV m  $     771,086.5789 
Total  $  2,061,445.6711 
Now, we solve for the premium
2,061,446 - 2,000,000 = 61,446 premium
the interst expense will be calcualte as carrying value times market rate
the cash will be the same for every period thus 210,000
Finally, the difference will be the amortizationon the premium
If redem on July 1st 2016 we need to record the interst:
2,048,684 x .05 = 102.434,2/2 = 51.217,1
cash interest: 1,000,000 x 10.5% / 2  = 52,500
<em>Total cash</em>
52,500 interest
<u>1,065,000 bonds </u>
  1,117,500 
portion of unamortized cost 25,000
face value 1,000,000
portion of premium: 48,684/2 = 24.342
the loss f redemption will be the difference between the interest expense, amoritzation on premiun and write-off of the face value with the amount of cash outlay.