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Andru [333]
1 year ago
8

individuals differ in risk aversion because of: group of answer choices differences in their insurance. moral hazard. adverse se

lection. differences in income or wealth.
Business
1 answer:
Gwar [14]1 year ago
5 0

Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.

  • Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
  • Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
  • If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.

Thus the correct answer is d.

Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406

#SPJ4

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Fiat money has an alternative use as an economic good, while commodity money did not. True or false
Drupady [299]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Commodity money is money whose value comes from a commodity of which it is made. Commodity money consists of objects having value or use in themselves (intrinsic value) as well as their value in buying goods.

Fiat money is a currency without intrinsic value that has been established as money, often by government regulation. Fiat money does not have use value.

4 0
3 years ago
(b)<br>Examine the common mistake that lead to a closure of a<br>business.​
ale4655 [162]
Maybe a product didn’t work out, a bad review from a customer or client, health inspections didn’t pass etc..
8 0
3 years ago
Q 10.7: Melbee Farms is considering purchasing a new combine that would help them finish their harvesting faster, thus allowing
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

Discounted payback period= 3 years 1 month

Explanation:

The discounted payback period is the estimated length of time in years it takes the present value of net cash inflow from a project to equate the net cash the initial cost  

To work out the discounted payback period, we will compute present value of the cash inflow and then determine how long it will take for the sum to be equal to the initial cost. This is done as follows:

Year     Cash flow     DF        Present value  

0           487,000 × 1          = (487,000)

1          157,000 × 1.07^(-1) = 146,729.0

2         182,000 × 1.07^(-2) = 158965.8

  3         202,000 × 1.07^(-3) = 164,892.2

4         213,000  × 1.07^(-4) =162,496.7

Total PV for 2 years = 146729 +158965+164892= 470587.0

Balance of cash flow remaining to equal  =  487,000-470587 = 16413.0

 Discounted payback period = 3 years + 16413.0 /162,496.7 × 12 months

= 3year , 1.2months

Discounted payback period= 3 years 1 month

5 0
3 years ago
A fixed asset with a cost of $30,000 and accumulated depreciation of $27,500 is sold for $3,500. What is the amount of the gain
MissTica

Answer:

The correct answer is B that is gain of $1,000

Explanation:

The amount of gain or loss on the disposal of the fixed assets is computed as:

Amount of loss or gain = (Selling Price + Accumulated depreciation) - Cost of fixed assets

where

Selling Price is $27,500

Accumulated depreciation is $3,500

Cost of fixed assets is $30,000

Putting the values above:

= ($27,500 + $3,500) - $30,000

= $31,000 - $30,000

= $1,000

It is a gain of $1,000 on disposal of the fixed assets.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is true?
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Explanation:

people living under a dictator tend to believe that The Dictator is doing best that can be done is RIGHT.....

HOPE IT HELP...

6 0
3 years ago
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