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Andru [333]
1 year ago
8

individuals differ in risk aversion because of: group of answer choices differences in their insurance. moral hazard. adverse se

lection. differences in income or wealth.
Business
1 answer:
Gwar [14]1 year ago
5 0

Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.

  • Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
  • Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
  • If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.

Thus the correct answer is d.

Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406

#SPJ4

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The best answer to both the flatness and horizon problems is Group of answer choices dark energy. the inflationary epoch. decoup
Ksivusya [100]

It should be noted that best answer to both the flatness and horizon problems is inflationary epoch.

The inflationary epoch van be regarded as the period in the evolution of the early universe, at this period there was an expansion.

According to inflation theory, the earth were recorded to experience great horizon problems and exponential expansion.

Therefore, inflationary epoch brings about both flatness and horizon problems

Learn more about inflationary epoch at:

brainly.com/question/11356270

3 0
2 years ago
Pina Corporation entered into an operating lease agreement to lease equipment from Badger, Inc. on January 1, 2017. The lease ca
posledela

Answer:

= $80,273

Explanation:

Value of the right of use asset = Value of lease liability - cash incentive received + costs incurred for lease

                  = $82,773 -$ 6,000 + $3,000 + $500

                     =$80,273

4 0
3 years ago
Nivan Co. issued $500,000 of 5 percent, 10-year, callable bonds on January 1, Year 1, at their face value. The call premium was
Sav [38]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

On Jan 1

Cash $500,000

          To Bond Payable  $500,000

(Being the issuance of the bond is recorded)

On Dec 31

Bond Payable $500,000

Loss on redemption $15,000    ($500,000 × 3%)

          To Cash    ($500,000 × 103%)  $515,000

(Being the redemption of the bond is recorded and the remaining balance or we can say balancing figure is debited to loss on redemption)

8 0
3 years ago
Im thinking of a number between 1-100 who ever gets closer gets brainiest
Digiron [165]

Answer:

77

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Calculating the price elasticity of supply.
alekssr [168]

Answer:

Explanation:

W1= 30             W2 =50

Q1 = 6              Q2 = 16

Elasticity of supply = (16-6) / (50-30) * (50+30) / (6+16)

 = (10/20) * (80/22) =80/44= 1.82

5 0
3 years ago
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