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bogdanovich [222]
1 year ago
15

internalizing a positive externality will cause the demand curve to a. shift to the right. b. shift to the left. c. become more

elastic. d. remain unchanged.
Business
1 answer:
Tcecarenko [31]1 year ago
3 0

Internalizing a positive externality will result in the demand curve to 'shift to the right'. Therefore, option A <em>'shift to the right' </em>is the correct answer.

A positive externality exists if the consumption and production of a service or good benefits a third party that is not directly involved in the market transactions.  When a company <em>internalizes </em>a positive externality, then the demand for its products and services would increase. Since this improves the delivery of goods and services with improved quality to consumers without having any direct motives to increase the monetary income of the company. This is clearly a positive boosting factor for the company, which in turn, will increase the demand for the company's goods and services and shift the curve to the right.

You can leran more about positive externality at

brainly.com/question/477170

#SPJ4

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A company has two products: A1 and B2 . It uses activity based costing and has prepared the following analysis showing budgeted
nordsb [41]

Answer:

Unitary cost=  $5.44

Explanation:

The annual production and sales level of Product B2 is 23,710 units.

<u>First, we need to calculate the activities rates:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Activity 1=  62,000/ (2,600 + 6,160)= $7.08 per unit of activity

Activity 2= 77,000/ (6,200 + 8,600)= $5.20 per unit of activity

Activity 3= 108,000 / (3,640 + 2,200)= $18.49 per unit of activity

<u>Now, we allocate costs to Product B1:</u>

<u></u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Activity 1=  7.08*6,160= 43,612.8

Activity 2= 5.20*8,600= 44,720

Activity 3= 18.49*2,200= 40,678

Total allocated costs= $129,010.8

<u> Finally, the unitary cost:</u>

Unitary cost= 129,010.8/23,710= $5.44

8 0
2 years ago
Mayan Company had net income of $132,000. The weighted-average common shares outstanding were 80,000. The company has no preferr
katrin [286]

Answer:

EPS = $1.71 per unit

Explanation:

<em>Earnings per share is the total earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders divided by the number of units of common stock .</em>

<em>It represents profit per unit of stock unit  held by common stock holder investor. The higher the more profitable and the  better.</em>

Earnings per share = Earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders / units of common stock

Earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders= Net income after tax - preference dividend  

Net income = 132,000

Preference dividend = Nil

<em>Number of shares at the end of the year = Number of shares at the beginning - number of shares at the end</em>

Number of shares at the end of the year = 80,000 - 3000 = 77,000  units

Earnings = = 132,000 - 0 = 132,000

Earnings per shares(EPS) = $132,000 / 77,000 units = $1.71 per unit

EPS = $1.71 per unit

4 0
3 years ago
You need a 25-year, fixed-rate mortgage to buy a new home for $315,000. Your mortgage bank will lend you the money at an APR of
Slav-nsk [51]

Answer:

The answer is $1,441,746.04

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

The Annual rate = 6.1%

The monthly  interests rate = 6.1%/12 =0.5083%

Monthly payment =$1,550

The time period =  $1,441,746.04300 Months

The amount of payment at the end of 300 months is

=1,550 *((1.005083^300 - 1) / 0.005083

The amount of payment at the end of 300 months is = $1,090,754.66

Thus

Future value of $315,000 = $315,000*1.005083^300

= $1,441,746.04

Now

The balloon payment =  $1,441,746.04 - 1,090,754.66

= $350,991.38

Therefore the largeness of this balloon payment will be $1,441,746.04

4 0
3 years ago
The following expenditures relating to plant assets were made by Prather Company during the first 2 months of 2020. Opposite eac
hammer [34]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation

Explanation:

1.Paid $5,000 of accrued taxes at time plant site was acquired.

LAND ACCOUNT because it is to be capitalized as it was part of the Acquisition Cost.

2.Paid $200 insurance to cover possible accident loss on new factory machinery while the machinery was in transit.

EQUIPMENT ACCOUNT as it is part of Acquisition Cost.

3.Paid $850 sales taxes on new delivery truck.

EQUIPMENT ACCOUNT as it is again part of Acquisition Cost.

4.Paid $17,500 for parking lots and driveways on new plant site.

LAND IMPROVEMENT ACCOUNT

5.Paid $250 to have company name and advertising slogan painted on new delivery truck.

EQUIPMENT ACCOUNT as it is a cost of setting the PPE up.

6.Paid $8,000 for installation of new factory machinery.

EQUIPMENT ACCOUNT as this expense is again part of setting the equipment up.

7.Paid $900 for one-year accident insurance policy on new delivery truck.

PREPAID INSURANCE because this is a periodic cost and those are not capitalized as they provide only a short term benefit.

8.Paid $75 motor vehicle license fee on the new truck.

LICENSE EXPENSE because it is also a period cost.

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose a foreign investor who holds tax-exempt Eurobonds paying 10.50% is considering investing in an equivalent-risk domestic
timurjin [86]

Answer:

14.58%

Explanation:

Return on Bond is the actual rate that is received by an investor on investment in bond.  

As per given data

After Tax return = 10.50%

Tax Rate = 28%

Deduction of 28% withholding tax will be made on the return of the bond in that country where investment is made and investor will have return net of tax.

We can calculate the after tax return on the bond as follow

After tax return = Before tax return x ( 1 - Tax rate )

10.5% = Before tax return x ( 1 - 28% )

0.105 = Before tax return x ( 1 - 0.28 )

0.105 = Before tax return x 0.72

Before tax return = 0.105 / 0.72

Before tax return =  0.1458 = 14.58%

4 0
3 years ago
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