P = the money, so...
20 - ( 4 times 3)
20 - 12
8. She has $8 remaining. Hope it helps! I you could vote me brainliest, that would be awesome!
Answer:
first we find the common difference.....do this by subtracting the first term from the second term. (9 - 3 = 6)...so basically, ur adding 6 to every number to find the next number.
we will be using 2 formulas....first, we need to find the 34th term (because we need this term for the sum formula)
an = a1 + (n-1) * d
n = the term we want to find = 34
a1 = first term = 3
d = common difference = 6
now we sub
a34 = 3 + (34-1) * 6
a34 = 3 + (33 * 6)
a34 = 3 + 198
a34 = 201
now we use the sum formula
Sn = (n (a1 + an)) / 2
S34 = (34(3 + 201))/2
s34 = (34(204)) / 2
s34 = 6936/2
s34 = 3468 <=== the sum of the first 34 terms:
Answer:
128
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
I think that -0.0000002 is the least, but I don't know the rest. I hope you can find the rest though. Happy Holidays!
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
And we can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:
And we can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got: