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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
15

Why does multiplying a + bi by the complex conjugate a -bi eliminate I from the expression

Mathematics
1 answer:
navik [9.2K]3 years ago
6 0

<u>EXPLANATION</u>

The reason is that

i^2=-1


If we multiply a+bi by its conjugate a-bi


We obtain;


(a+bi)(a-bi)

This is difference of two squares so we obtain;


(a+bi)(a-bi)=a^2-(bi)^2


This further gives us,

(a+bi)(a-bi)=a^2-b^2i^2

Since the i^2=-1, we substite to get;

(a+bi)(a-bi)=a^2-b^2(-1)

The i is now eliminated and we get,


(a+bi)(a-bi)=a^2+b^2






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