Can some one help me. I don’t understand
2 answers:
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Answer:
<h2>17</h2>Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
84%
Step-by-step explanation:
The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.
Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:
68% + 16% = 84%.
