Answer: The answer is C.
Explanation: The Resource dependence theory is based on the principle that organizations, must engage in transactions with other organizations in their environment in order to acquire the resources needed for their daily operations.
Although such transactions may be advantageous, they may also create dependencies that are not, and so organization A may want to rely less on organization B, in their quest to influence the environment to make resources available.
This theory actually originated in the 1970s with the publication of The External Control of Organizations: A Resource Dependence Perspective by Jeffrey Pfeffer and Gerald R. Salancik.
The theory is based on the idea that resources are vital for organisational success and that access and control over resources forms the basis of power.
Answer:
C) I, II, and III only.
- I. May demand payment of the full amount immediately from the sureties when the corporation defaults on the loan.
- II. May demand payment of the full amount immediately from the sureties even if Reuter does not attempt to recover any amount from the collateral.
- III. May attempt to recover up to $200,000 from the collateral and the remainder from the sureties, even if the remainder is more than $300,000.
Explanation:
The bank has several options in this case, depending on the financial position and net worth of the sureties and the corporation. It can decide to collect all the debt directly from them, or collect part of the debt through the collateral property, or it can go after the assets of the corporation, or any type of combination. In this case the bank has three options from which it can collect the debt and it is up to them to decide how they proceed.
Answer:
a. Terrell's Optimal Capital Structure is 40:60. It means to obtain optimal capital structure in-order to increase value of firm, Terrell should finance 40% of its Assets through Debt and remaining through Common Equity.
b. The optimal Capital Structure is the point where company's WACC is minimized. So, 40:60 is the ratio where Terrell's WACC will be minimized.
Explanation:
The goal of Management is to increase Shareholders' wealth and not to generate profits because wealth is something that is for long-run whereas Profits are temporary. Management would accept projects having negative NPV if its goal is to maximize Profit.
Maximizing Shareholders' wealth means to increase the Share Price whereas Generating a higher EPS is Profit Maximization Strategy. So, you should look for that Capital Structure Point where the Company's Stock Price is Highest.
Thanks!
Answer: Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Old market price of stock = $15
New market price of stock = $18
Here, we assume that EPS be $5.
So,
Price-earning ratio at old price = 
= 
= 3
Price-earning ratio at New price = 
= 
= 3.6
Hence, price-earnings ratio increases.
Answer:
Marie est allee chez le medecin