Answer:
Total sales tax payable:170, sales :2000
Explanation:
Sale price x sales tax rate = sales tax payable
2000 x .085 (6%+2.5%) = 170
it doesn’t say so I’m assuming that the 2,000 credit sale does NOT include the sales tax due.
Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable
Answer:
Expected value of X = -11.09
Explanation:
Expected profit:
= Probability of winning × Amount she wins
= 0.03 × $180
= 5.4
Expected loss:
= Probability of loosing × Amount she paid
= 0.97 × $17
= 16.49
Let X be amount of money Mary wins or loses.
E(X) = Expected profit - Expected loss
= 5.4 - 16.49
= -11.09
Expected value of X = -11.09
That is expected value of loss of $11.09
Answer: $197,600
Explanation: Don Co is making a sale to Cologne GmbH and on the date of the transaction there is an exchange rate called the spot rate. Don Co will record in its books the value of the transaction on the set date at the spot rate which is:
200,000 euros @ .988
= $197,600
on the date of the settlement of the debt by Cologne GmbH, the spot rate is also considered which will be 200,[email protected] .995 = $199,000
Note that on the payment date, the exchange rate has gone up and now Don Co has a higher receivable value that what is in its book.
the difference of $1,400 ($199,000-$197,600) will now be noted in the books of Don Co as an exchange gain on the transaction.
Answer:
d. Both the longer term and the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate higher on the bond issued by Knight.
Explanation:
Both the longer term and the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate higher on the bond issued by Knight because this bond is risky and uncertain.
This means the company would not want to run at a loss
