Answer: 1/ 233856 chance changed to 233856 x 2 = 467712
= 1 / 467712 chance as there are 2 drawings
Workings;
1 and 65 = 64
1 and 65 - 1 ball drawn = 63
1 and 60 -1 = 58
1/64 x 1/63 x 1/58 = 233856
1/4032 x 1/58 and to make these the same we 4038/58 = 69.62
then convert properly = 1/4032 x 69.62/4032 4032 x 4032 = 69.62/16257024 then 16257024/69.62 =233510.83
= 233511 chance if rounding before
1/ (233511 x 2) = 1/467022
Then one part is our actual probability
P) = 1/233856
But as they specified a special drawing
you need to repeat this as 64 x 63 x 58 x 2 as the last one cannot be in 1 drawing it has to be in 2nd drawing
233856 x 2 = 467712
= 1 / 467712 chance not rounding down before hand.
Well, 9/2 is your slope, so think of it for a moment as your y-intercept formula where m is your slope (y=mx+b)
So, you would graph it by going up 9 and over two and so on. When solving the function, you would plug in an x value as your x and solve it by multiplying it with the slope.
Shall I clarify further or do you understand?
X1+y1=x2+y2
This one is not true because of the equation y=kx and all the other equations can simplify to this equation
40 x 8.50 = 340
340 x .0765 = 26.01
So the employer should withhold $26.01 from her check for social security.
Yeah seems like it, but if not i’ll help you