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gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
3 years ago
7

Order the rational numbers from least to greatest. -3/4. -0.85. 0.55. 1/4. -0.9. -1/2​

Mathematics
2 answers:
trasher [3.6K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-0.9, -0.85, -3/4, -1/2, 1/4, 0.55

Step-by-step explanation:

Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-0/9 ,-1/2 ,-1/4 , 0.55, -0.85

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Need anyone’s help with this APEX question! Much appreciated!
VMariaS [17]

<u>Answer:</u>

The correct answer option is D. (x - 7) + 2.

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

We are to determine whether which of the given options best describe the English expression:

<em>'two more than the quantity of a number minus seven'</em>

We can break this expression into smaller chunks to make it easier to translate.

1. two more than ---> +2

2. the quantity of a number ---> suppose the number to be 'x'

3. number minus 7 ---> (x - 7)

Combining these, we get (x - 7) + 2 so the correct answer option is D.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Find the value of a answers: a:15 b:14 c:19 d:16
Paul [167]

Answer:

6a+10= 3a+55

6a-3a= 55-10

3a= 45

a= 45/3

a= 15

The answer is (A) 15

Hope this helps^°^

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Fractions into decimals 5/16
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer: 1 11/16

Step-by-step explanation:

5 divided by 5 is 1 so that’s a whole number and 11 is left 16-5=11 so the fraction will be the mixed number as 1 11/16. And also if you can, can you plz help me on my science hw it’s due tomorrow and I don’t know what to do!

4 0
3 years ago
Helpppp!! i’m willing to give all my points and brainliest, especially w explanation!
Rainbow [258]
Here are the basic rules for a right triangle:
One angle is always 90° or right angle.

The side opposite angle 90° is the hypotenuse.

The hypotenuse is always the longest side.

The sum of the other two interior angles is equal to 90°.

The other two sides adjacent to the right angle are called base and perpendicular.


a quick way to find angle 1, is just to look at the figure. there seems to be bisecting angles, so angle FCE and angle 1 are congruent. (meaning angle 1 is also 34 degrees)

hope this helps! lmk.
8 0
2 years ago
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