Answer:
The 1-day rate of return on the index = 5.36%
Explanation:
Index Value = Sum of (Outstanding Shares*Share Price)
q p mv q1 p1 mv1
640,000 16 10240000 640000 20 12800000
540,000 24 12960000 540000 22 11880000
240,000 55 <u>13200000</u> 240000 57 <u>13680000</u>
<u>36400000 </u> <u>38360000</u>
Note: q/q1 = no of shares, p = price per share, mv/mv1 = market value, p1 = changed price per share
Return = (Index Value Today - Index Value Yesterday)/Index Value Yesterday
Return = (38360000 - 36400000) / 36400000
Return = 0.05385
Return = 5.36%
Answer:
C. Social network analysis
Explanation:
According to my research on different company intercommunication techniques, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the approach being used here is called a Social network analysis. This is a form of analyzing certain individual sectors or people and observing the relationships between them.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
Acitivy B should be crashed first by 2 days and Activity B has a crash cost per days of $25, it will be crashed for a total of $50.
Explanation:
activity A =
normal time (NT) = 5 days
Normal cost (NC) = $0
crash time (CT) = 3 days
Crash cost (CC) = $500
crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[CT - NT] = $250/day
activity B:
normal time (NT) = 6 days
Normal cost (NC) = $0
crash time (CT) = 4 days
Crash cost (CC) = $50
crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[CT - NT] = $25/day
activity C:
normal time (NT) = 8 days
Normal cost (NC) = $0
crash time (CT) = 3 days
Crash cost (CC) = $1000
crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[ CT- NT] = $200/day
The activity that takes the least cost to speed up is the first one to be crashed. from the computations, activity B takes the least cost to speed up, so the project manager should crash activity B first by 2 days.
Therefore, Acitivy B should be crashed first by 2 days and Activity B has a crash cost per days of $25, it will be crashed for a total of $50.
i think B hope i could help!!
Answer:
The correct option is A,A. 7,000 = NA + 2,000 - (5,000) NA - NA = NA 7.000 FA
Explanation:
By issuing the treasury stock ,asset,cash to be precise increases by $7000($35*200) which implies a debit to the asset ,hence the $7000 seen on the left hand-side of the equation.
This transaction has no liability impact,as a result liabilities is denoted NA,not applicable.
The par value of the treasury is to be credited to treasury stock with $5,000($25*200).
Lastly the difference between the par value and the issue is credited to paid-in capital from treasury stock i.e($35-$25)*200))=$2000,this is depicted by $2000 in the equation