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Drupady [299]
3 years ago
7

Many financial decisions require the analysis of uneven,or nonconstant: cash flows stock dividends typically increase over time

and investments in capital equipment almost always generate uneven cash flows. The term cash flow (CFt) denotes cash flows, while payment (PMT) designates cash flows coming at regular intervals The present value of an uneven cash flow stream is the sum of the PVs of the individual cash flows. The equation is: PV = Similarly, the future value of an uneven cash flow stream is the sum of the FVs of the individual cash flows. Many calculators have an NFV key that lets you obtain the FV. However, if your calculator doesn't have a net future value (NFV) key, you can calculate the NFV as follows: NFV-NPV × (1+1) One can also find the interest rate of the uneven cash flow stream with a financial calculator and solving Quantitative Problem: You own a security with the cash flows shown below 700 355 240 320 If you equire an annual retum of 10%, what is the present value of this cash flow stream? Round your answer to the nearest cent. Do not round intermediate calculations.
Business
1 answer:
pshichka [43]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

       

           \large\boxed{\large\boxed{\$ 1,328.63}}

Explanation:

Since the four<em>-cash-flow stream</em> is <em>uneven</em>, the manual calculation involves the calculation of four separate present values which you have to add.

The <em>cash flows </em>are:

  • Year 1: 700
  • Year 2: 355
  • Year 3: 240
  • Year 4: 320

The required rate of return is r = 10% = 0.10

The formula that you must use is:

               PV=\frac{CF_1}{(1+i)^1}+\frac{CF_2}{(1+i)^2}+\frac{CF_3}{(1+i)^3}+\frac{CF_4}{(1+i)^4}

Where <em>PV </em>is the <em>present value</em>; CF₁, CF₂, CF₃, CF₄ are the cash flows of the years 1, 2, 3, and 4 respectively, and i is the annual return.

Substituting:

             PV=\frac{700}{(1+0.10)^1} +\frac{355}{(1+0.10)^2} +\frac{240}{(1+0.10)^3} +\frac{320}{(1+0.10)^4}

             PV=\$ 636.36+\$ 293.39+\$ 180.31+\$ 218.56=\$ 1,328.63

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Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

$750 favorable ; $200 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computations are shown below:

For fixed overhead budget variance:

= Budgeted fixed overhead - actual fixed overhead

= $47,420 - $46,670

= $750 favorable

For fixed overhead volume variance:

= Budgeted fixed overhead - standard fixed overhead cost allocated to production

= $47,420 - $47,220

= $200 unfavorable

Hence we consider all the given information

8 0
3 years ago
Marin Corporation had net sales of $2,427,500 and interest revenue of $40,000 during 2017. Expenses for 2017 were cost of goods
katovenus [111]

Answer:

The answer follows below;

Explanation:

Marin Corporation

Income Statement

For the year 31, xxxx 2017

Sales                              $2,427,500

Cost of Goods Sold     ($1,465,500)

Gross Profit                                                $962,000

Operating Expenses

Admin. Expenses          ($220,600)

Selling Expenses          ($289,300)

Interest Expense            ($47,900)

Total Operating Expenses                        ($557,800)

Operating Income                                        $404,200              

Non Operating Income

Interest Income                                             $40,000          

Total Income before Taxation                    $444,200

Taxes (444,200*30%)                                   ($133,260)      

Net Income after Taxation                            $310,940          

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For the case of a perfectly price-discriminating monopolist (ppdm), producer surplus can be calculated as:
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

Producer surplus can be defined as the difference between how much a person can receive by selling a good at the market price versus how much a person would be willing to accept for the given quantity of good.

The Perfect Price Discrimination (1st degree price discrimination) will occur when an organization charges a different price for every unit consumed.

Producer surplus is formally given as PS = TR( q ppdm ) 0 q ppdm MC(q)dq

Where TR is the Total Revenue

For total cost and the definite integral of marginal cost over the range of output, we find that PS = TR( q ppdm ) TC( q ppdm ).

That is the sum of the consumer surplus and producer surplus is the total gains from trade.

8 0
3 years ago
Batista Company management wants to maintain a minimum monthly cash balance of $19,900. At the beginning of April, the cash bala
9966 [12]

Answer:

the amount must be borrowed is $8,900

Explanation:

The computation of the amount must be borrowed is shown below:

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Add: cash receipts $244,400

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Cash balance after disbursements $11,000

Minimum monthly cash balance $19,900

Amount to be borrowed $8,900

hence, the amount must be borrowed is $8,900

4 0
2 years ago
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UkoKoshka [18]

Answer: B. 1023, 1500, 2000}

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The Optimal solution should contain the set of quantities that would require the lowest no. of orders to achieve a discount in a class.

1,023 is quite close to the lowest amount required of 1,000 in the 1,000 to 1,499 range.

So are 1,500 and 2,000.

Option D can also work but it has too many order quantities and will inflate the price.

The Optimal Solution therefore has to be from this option.

5 0
2 years ago
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