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jasenka [17]
3 years ago
9

In October, Blossom Company reports 19,100 actual direct labor hours, and it incurs $167,200 of manufacturing overhead costs. St

andard hours allowed for the work done is 20,900 hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $8.10 per direct labor hour. In addition, the flexible manufacturing overhead budget shows that budgeted costs are $6.40 variable per direct labor hour and $47,400 fixed. Compute the overhead controllable variance.
Business
1 answer:
Elenna [48]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

overhead controllable variance =  13960 F

Explanation:

given data

actual direct labor hours = 19,100

manufacturing overhead costs = $167,200

work done = 20,900 hours

overhead rate = $8.10

budgeted costs variable = $6.40

budgeted costs fixed = $47,400

to find out

overhead controllable variance

solution

we get here overhead controllable variance as      

overhead controllable variance = Actual overhead - Budgeted overhead   ......................1

Budgeted overhead is = work done × Budgeted variable + Budgeted fixed

Budgeted overhead is = 20,900 × 6.40 + 47,400

Budgeted overhead is = 181160

put here value we get

overhead controllable variance = $167,200 - 181160

overhead controllable variance =  13960 F

   

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A nonprofit group organizes its local fundraisers in teams, with each of its L team leaders responsible for D group directors, a
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

Each of L team leaders has D group directors, making the total number of group directors equal to (L)(D). And each of those group directors has F fundraisers, again requiring multiplication: that total is (L)(D)(F). (You can try this by plugging in small numbers - if each of 2 leaders has 3 directors, you know there would be 6 directors)

So while statement 1 is not sufficient (there are multiple combinations that could get you to 81, such as L = 1, D = 2, and F = 39; or L = 1, D = 5, and F = 15), statement 2 guarantees that there is only one team leader. This is because 5 is a prime number, and you know that the number of group directors = LD. The only possible way for LD to equal 5 is if L is 1 and D is 5, or if D is 1 and L is 5. And since the stimulus tells you that there are more directors than leaders, the combination must be 5 directors and 1 leader. Accordingly, statement 2 is sufficient.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
1. Why is money management important? How would you rate your own money management?
rodikova [14]
Money management keep you away from from debt, to Manage my money I keep a budget trying not to go over my budget buying only thing I need. I believe in saving for tomorrow in case of emergency cause tomorrow is mystery you most be prepared for it.
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The question I have is on the sheet​
bazaltina [42]

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I think it's first one tooo

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3 years ago
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Barclay Enterprises manufactures and sells three distinct styles of bicycles: the Youth model sells for $350 and has a unit cont
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

Break-even point in composite units = 811 units

Explanation:

Number of modal;

5 Youth models

9 Adult models

6 Recreational models

Annual fixed costs total = $6,550,000

Find:

Break-even point in composite units

Computation:

Mixed contribution margin = 5[130] + 9[475] + 6[525]

Mixed contribution margin = 650 + 4275 + 3150

Mixed contribution margin = $8075

Break-even point in composite units = Annual fixed costs total / Mixed contribution margin

Break-even point in composite units = 6,550,000 / 8075

Break-even point in composite units = 811 units

3 0
3 years ago
Garcia Co. owns equipment that cost $84,400, with accumulated depreciation of $44,600. Garcia sells the equipment for cash.
user100 [1]

Answer:

a.

Accumulated depreciation                   44600 Dr

Cash                                                         52700 Dr

                 Equipment                                 84400 Cr

                 Gain on disposal                       12900 Cr

b.

Accumulated depreciation                   44600 Dr

Cash                                                         39800 Dr

                 Equipment                                 84400 Cr

c.

Accumulated depreciation                   44600 Dr

Cash                                                         34700 Dr

Loss on disposal                                     5100 Dr

                 Equipment                                 84400 Cr

Explanation:

First we need to determine the net book value of the equipment at the time of sale. The net book value is the net value after deducting accumulated depreciation from the cost of the asset.

Net Book value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation

Net Book Value = 84400 - 44600     = $39800

  • If the asset is sold for more than its net book value, there is gain on disposal.
  • If it is sold for exactly its net book value, there is no gain or no loss on disposal.
  • If it is sold for less than its net book value, there is loss on disposal.

a.

Gain on disposal = 52700 - 39800   = $12900

b.

No gain or no loss as Net Book Value of the asset equals the amount of cash it is sold for.

c.

Loss on disposal = 34700 - 39800   =  - $5100

6 0
3 years ago
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