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Alexxx [7]
3 years ago
14

Mullineaux Corporation has a target capital structure of 64 percent common stock, 9 percent preferred stock, and 27 percent debt

. Its cost of equity is 12.9 percent, the cost of preferred stock is 5.9 percent, and the cost of debt is 7.6 percent. The relevant tax rate is 40 percent. What is Mullineaux�s WACC?
Business
1 answer:
nlexa [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

10.02%

Explanation:

The computation of the WACC is shown below. The formula of WACC is shown below:

= (Weightage of debt × cost of debt)  + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

= 27% × 7.6% × (1 - 0.40) + 9% × 5.9% + 64% × 12.9%

= 2.052% × (1 - 0.40) + 0.531% + 8.256%

= 10.02%

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Long Construction Company uses the percentage-of-completion method of accounting for long-term construction contracts. During 20
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

$400 million less ($176+$84)=$14 million

Explanation:

the percentage of completion method of accounting is more like of income statement because it is used to assess the companys performance and financial position

8 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of the current period, Sheridan Company had balances in Accounts Receivable of $203,500 and in Allowance for Do
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

Sheridan Company

a. Debit Accounts receivable $739,000

Credit Sales revenue $739,000

To record sales of goods on account.

Debit Cash $813,450

Credit Accounts receivable $813,450

To record collections from customers.

b. Debit Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $7,198

Credit Accounts receivable $7,198

To record the write-off of accounts for the period.

c. Debit Accounts receivable $2,978

Credit Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $2,978

To record the recovery of the uncollectible account.

d. Debit Bad Debts Expense $22,410

Credit Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $22,410

To record bad debt expense for the period.

Explanation:

a) Data and Analysis:

a. Accounts receivable $739,000 Sales revenue $739,000

b. Cash $813,450 Accounts receivable $813,450

c. Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $7,198 Accounts receivable $7,198

d. Accounts receivable $2,978 Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $2,978

e. Bad Debts Expense $22,410  Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $22,410

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts

Account Titles          Debit        Credit

Beginning balance                   $8,620

Accounts receivable $7,198

Accounts receivable                  2,978

Bad debts expense                  22,410

Ending balance        26,810

Totals                    $34,008  $34,008

5 0
3 years ago
JLK is a partnership that was formed two years ago for the purpose of creating new fad items and distributing them directly to c
arsen [322]

Answer:

The correct answer is E. Initial public offering.

Explanation:

An Initial Public Offering (IPO) is an equity offering where a <u>private company</u> or '<u>issuer</u>' decides to <em>go public for the first time</em>. This is a big step for companies to raise capital through public investors, get access to better and more credit and further grow a company. To go through with an IPO, a company must meet the requirements of the Securities and Exchange Comission (SEC).

The process is made with the help of one or more <u>investment banks</u> that act as <u>underwriters</u>. Underwriters take care of the offering from the beginning to the end of the IPO by preparing documentation, providing proposals on selling price, amount of shares & timeframe for the market offering, marketing campaigns and going through the issuing process.

5 0
3 years ago
If the domestic demand curve is Equal 20p Superscript negative 0.5​, the domestic supply curve is Equal 5p Superscript 0.5​, and
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

$52

$ 1.33

  • consumer price will increase
  • consumer surplus will decrease
  • import will decrease
  • reduced export
  • portends gloom for the general outlook for the economy

Explanation:

Given domestic demand curve, S(p) = 20p⁻⁰°⁵

the domestic supply curve S(p)= 5p⁰°⁵

world price is ​$7.00

using  calculus to determine the changes in consumer​ surplus

by consumer surplus means in this case supply exceeds demand

we establish the equilibrium point where the supply and demand functions meet or are equal

solving 20p⁻⁰°⁵ = 5p⁰°⁵

     20/5 = p⁰°⁵/p⁻⁰°⁵

       4 = p⁰°⁵⁺⁰°⁵

      4= p = q which is the quantity produced

     

consumer surplus =  maximum price willing to pay - Actual price

                             = ∫⁴₀  dp dp - p* q

                               =  ∫⁴₀20p⁻⁰°⁵ dp- 7* 4

                              = 20∫⁴₀p⁻⁰°⁵ dp -28

                              = 20/0.5 p⁰°⁵- 28

                              = 40 *4⁰°⁵ - 28 =  $52

producer surplus = it is a measure of producer welfare. It is measured as the difference between what producers are willing and able to supply a good for and the price they actually receive

thus  producer  surplus = p* q - ∫⁴₀  d(s) dp

                                         = 7 * 4 - ∫⁴₀  5p⁰°⁵  dp

                                         = 28 - 5 ∫⁴₀   p⁰°⁵    dp

                                         = 28 -5 *2/3  p¹°⁵  

                                          = 28 -5 *2/3  4¹°⁵

                                          =$ 1.33

welfare from eliminating free trade

  • consumer price will increase
  • consumer surplus will decrease
  • import will decrease
  • reduced exports
  • portends gloom for the general outlook for the economy

5 0
3 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
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