Answer:
7.98%
8.61%
Explanation:
wj = [(0.172)² - 0.50x0.522x0.172)/((0.522)²+(0.172)²-2x0.50x0.522x0.172]
= - 0.07211
Expected returns
= (-0.07211)x 0.112+(1-(-0.07211))x0.082
= 7.98367%
Standard deviation
=√((-0.07211)x(0.522²+((1-(-0.07211))x0.172)²+2x(-0.07211)x(1-(-0.07211))x0.522x0.172x0.5)
This gives us a standard deviation of
= 8.61054%
The expected return = 7.98%
The standard deviation = 8.61%
Answer:
a. It is not a fair deal for me.
The question is how much is $1,000 today when received in 12 months' time from now. The present value of $1,000 at 5% effective interest rate is $952 ($1,000 * 0.952). The other repayment of $1,100 in 2 years' time from now is worth $997.70 today at the 5% effective interest rate. This implies that my friend is repaying me $1,949.70 in present value terms.
For friendship sake, I may lend her the money, but in economic analysis terms, the NPV value will yield a negative value of $50.30 ($2,000 - $1,949.70). My friend is not actually paying me back the amount I would lend to her. She is paying me less than I actually would lend to her.
b. Cash Flow Diagram:
Year 1 Year 2
F1 F2
$1,000 $1,100 (Inflows)
Fo⇵.................⇵.......................⇵...........................⇵n period
Year 0
$2,000 (outflows)
Explanation:
The cash flow diagram for this loan is the graphical representation of the timing of the cash flows with a clear marking of the repayments made by my best friend in two instalments and the $2,000 that I lent to her. This cash flow diagram presents the flow of cash as arrows on a timeline scaled to the magnitude of the cash flow, where outflows are down arrows and inflows are up arrows.
The Net present value (NPV) of this loan shows the difference between the present value of repayments by my best friend and the present value of $2,000 that I lent to her over a period of 2 years. To obtain this difference, the present values of cash inflows of $1,000 in a year's time and $1,100 in two years' time are determined using the discount factor table based on the given interest rate of 5%.
Answer:
$235,000
Explanation:
The computation fo the safety margin is shown below:
As we know that
Margin of safety = Expected sales - break even sales
where,
Expected sales is
= 29,000 units × $50
= $1,450,000
And, the break even sales is
= Fixed cost ÷ contribution margin per unit
= $486,000 ÷ ($50 - $50 × 0.60)
= $486,000 ÷ $20
= 24,300 units
And, the selling price is $50
So the break even sales is
= 24,300 units × $50
= $1,215,000
So, the safety margin is
= $1,450,000 - $1,215,000
= $235,000
Answer:
c)consumer’s desired price is too low, producers may limit the amount produced
Explanation:
In a free market economy, price and quantity produced is determined by the forces of demand and supply. If there's a disequilibrium in the market, market forces bring about equilibrium.
In this question, there's a disequilibrium; there seems to be excess supply. To restore equilibrium, supply has to fall so equilibrium can be restored.
I hope my answer helps you.
