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Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
9

Boise Timber Co. computes its break-even point strictly on the basis of cash expenditures related to fixed costs. Its total fixe

d costs are $7,600,000, but 25 percent of this value is represented by depreciation. Its contribution margin (price minus variable cost) for each unit is $20. How many units does the firm need to sell to reach the cash break-even point? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.)
Business
1 answer:
JulsSmile [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

285,000 units

Explanation:

The computation of the cash break-even point of sales units is shown below:

Cash break-even point = (Fixed cost - depreciation) ÷ (contribution margin per unit)

where,

Fixed cost = $7,600,000

Depreciation = $7,600,000 × 0.25% = $1,900,000

And, the contribution margin per unit is $20

So, the cash break-even point of sales units is

= ($7,600,000 - $1,900,000) ÷ ($20)

= 285,000 units

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Prior to labor unions, both the employer and employee had the legal right to terminate an employment
Kruka [31]

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The correct term for the situation proposed in the question is employment at will. The other options describe agreements that have arisen since the creation of the labor unions.

The first option, a closed shop, described an agreement made between the hiring party and the labor unions in which the hiring party agrees to <u>only hire members of the union</u>, while an open shop is just the opposite.

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3 0
3 years ago
Why is the savings account better than a checking’s account for saving money?
Lisa [10]

Because it pays a higher rate of interest.

A savings account is better than a checking account for saving money because they normally pay a higher interest rate than a checking account. Quite often, a checking account will not pay any interest at all.

7 0
3 years ago
A firm currently has a debt-equity ratio of 1/2. The debt, which is virtually riskless, pays an interest rate of 6%. The expecte
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Expected return on equity is 11.33%

Explanation:

Using Weighted Average Cost Capital without tax formula, overall rate of return is given by the formula:

WACC=(Ke*E/V)+(Kd*D/V)

Kd is the cost of debt at 6%

Ke is the cost of equity at 12%

D/E=1/2 which means debt is 1 and equity is 2

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+2=1/3

E/V=equity/debt+equity=2/1+2=2/3

WACC=(12%*2/3)+(6%*1/3)

WACC=10%

If the firm reduces debt-equity ratio to 1/3,1 is for debt 3 is for equity

D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+3=1/4

E/V=equity/debt+equity=3/1+3=3/4

WACC=10%

10%=(Ke*3/4)+(6%*1/4)

10%=(Ke*3/4)+1.5%

10%-1.5%=Ke*3/4

8.5%=Ke*3/4

8.5%=3Ke/4

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4 0
3 years ago
Murphy's, Inc. has 10,000 shares of stock outstanding with a par value of $1.00 per share. The market value is $8 per share. The
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

option B is correct

market price per share be after the dividend is $7.27

Explanation:

Given data

share = 10000

stock value = $1.00 per share

market value = $8 per share

capital in excess = $32,500

common stock account = $10,000

retained earnings account = $42,700

stock dividend = 10%

to find out

market price

solution

we will find here market price / share that is given here formula

Market price is = ( share × market value) ÷ ( share × 1.10)

put here all these value we get

Market price = ( 10000  × 8 ) ÷ (10000 × 1.10)

market price = 80000 ÷ 11,000

so market price = 7.27

hence option B is correct

market price per share be after the dividend is $7.27

4 0
3 years ago
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