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2 years ago

The trend in the poverty rate since the mid 1960's___________.

Business

1 answer:

enyata [817]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Letter B

Explanation:

It is worth noting that, although poverty rates have decreased, there has been no drastic decrease as mentioned in option A and option B fits the answer better. Whereas, the official poverty rate in the USA according to data from the Census Bureau, has decreased in the last half-century, from 22.1% in 1960 to 14.5% in 2013, which means the lowest rate since the 1960s.

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Radoski Corporation's bonds make an annual coupon interest payment of 7.35% every year. The bonds have a par value of $1,000, a

mylen [45]

Answer:

The answer is 2.71 percent

Explanation:

The interest payment is annually.

N(Number of periods) = 12 years

I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ?

PV(present value or market price) = $1,470

PMT( coupon payment) = $73.5 ( [7.35 percent x $1,000)

FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.

We are using a Financial calculator for this.

N= 12; PV = -1470 ; PMT = 73.5; FV= $1,000; CPT I/Y= 2.71

Therefore, the Yield-to-maturity of the bond annually is 2.71 percent

7 0

3 years ago

During the current period, Department A finished and transferred 50,000 units to Department B. Of the 50,000 units, 20,000 were

antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

A. $1,615

Explanation:

Provided information,

Total transferred units = 50,000

Opening units = 20,000 which were 1/5 th complete

Equivalent units = 4,000

That means on the remaining 20,000 - 4,000 = 16,000 units full overheads were applied.

30,000 units were started and completed during the month, for which entire overheads will be added.

Newly started = 10,000 units 3/5th complete = 6,000 units completed in closing inventory.

Therefore total equivalent completed units on which overheads applied = 16,000 + 30,000 + 6,000 = 52,000 units

Ending goods in inventory = 10,000 units which are 6,000 equivalent units completed

Total overheads for the month = $14,000

Overheads = $14,000/52,000 = 0.269 per unit

For 6,000 units = $1,615 .38

Therefore correct option is

A. $1,615

8 0

2 years ago

According to Modigliani and Miller, a firm's value is determined solely by the earning power and risk of its assets and that the

Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Modigliani and Miller or MM hypothesis states that dividend policy of a firm plays no role in the determination of the market value of it's stock or the market value of the firm.

As per the theory, dividend policy of a firm is irrelevant and does not affect the value of the firm.

The theory maintains that under specific set of assumptions, the capital structure of a firm and it's composition does not play any role in determining the value of a firm and no capital structure can be termed as optimal.

It further states, the value of a firm is determined by capitalizing it's expected return with the firm's average cost of capital. Also, a firm cannot change the total value of it's securities by splitting it's cash flows into different streams such as dividends or retained earnings.

A firm's value is determined by a firm's real assets and not by it's issued securities.

5 0

2 years ago

Concord uses the periodic inventory system. For the current month, the beginning inventory consisted of 7400 units that cost $10

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

$109,250

Explanation:

FIFO assumes that the units to arrive first, will be sold first. Therefore, inventory valuation is based on later or recent prices.

Step 1 : units in ending inventory

Ending Inventory = units available for sale - units sold

= 9,500

Step 2 : inventory value

Ending Inventory = 9,500 x $11.50 = $109,250

8 0

3 years ago

A stock has an average expected return of 10.1 percent for the next year. The beta of the stock is 1.45. The T-Bill rate is 5.5%

Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

The right solution is "4.55%".

Explanation:

Given that,

Expected return,

= 10.1%

Risk-free rate,

= 3.5%

Beta,

= 1.45

Now,

The market risk premium will be:

⇒ $Expected \ return=Risk-free \ rate+Beta\times (Market \ risk \ premium)$

⇒ $Market \ risk \ premium=\frac{Expected \ return-Risk -free \ rate}{Beta}$

By putting the values, we get

⇒ $=\frac{10.1-3.5}{1.45}$

⇒ $=\frac{6.6}{1.45}$

⇒ $=4.55$ (%)

3 0

2 years ago