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Vladimir79 [104]
4 years ago
9

During risk management activities, 236 risks have been identified which are caused by 13 root causes. You could eliminate 234 ri

sks by your risk management activities. For the remaining 2 risks, you, together with your team, could not find a way to mitigate or insure the risks. Also these 2 risks cannot be outsourced or removed from the project scope. What is the best solution?
a. Transfer the risk
b. Mitigate the risk
c. Avoid the risk
d. Accept the risk
Business
1 answer:
alisha [4.7K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: (D) Accept the risk

Explanation:

 According to the given question, the one of the best solution is to accept the risk as the 2 given risks in the project cannot be removed or also outsourced from the given project scope.

Accepting the risk is one of the risk retention process in which we sometimes cannot avoid the given risk in the risk management and it is commonly found in the various types of investment process and also in the business.

 On the basis of the given scenario, we could not eliminate the two risks in the project so the best solution is to using the risk acknowledgement due to some limitations. Therefore, Option (D) is correct answer.

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PLS HELP!! Complete the following sentence.<br> Making sales is the primary mission of a sales___
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Answer:

Salesman

Explanation:

A Salesman, also called a Sales Representative or Salesperson, sells products or services to businesses or consumers. - JH

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3 years ago
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There are 2 methods of accounting for uncollectible receivables: Direct Write-Off and Allowance methods. Describe and compare th
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The direct write off does not report about the bad debt and does not use the allowance where as the allowance method uses the allowance for doubtful accounts because it provides an estimate for the same.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The allowance method speaks to the accumulation and accrual basis of bookkeeping and is the acknowledged technique to record uncollectible records for monetary bookkeeping purposes. The direct write off method is utilized just when we choose a client won't pay.

The allowance method utilizes the stipend for doubtful records to catch amassed assessments of awful obligations. The direct write-off method does not report bad debt estimates; therefore, it does not use the allowance for doubtful accounts when reporting bad debts.

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4 years ago
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A financial institution offers a "double-your-money" savings account in which you will have $2 in 11 years for every dollar you
quester [9]

Answer:

The correct answer is 0.06317911524 or 6.3%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

FV = $2

PV = $1

Time period (t)= 11 years

So, we can calculate the rate of interest by using following fomula:

FV=PV ( 1 + r ÷12)^12t

By putting the value, we get

$2 = $1 ( 1 + r ÷ 12)^(12 × 11

$2^(1 ÷ 132) = 1 + r ÷ 12

r ÷ 12 = (1.00526492627 - 1)

r = 0.00526492627× 12

= 0.06317911524 or 6.3%

7 0
3 years ago
Describe a hypothetical government budget that employs an expansionary policy.
NikAS [45]

Answer:

Expansionary fiscal policy involves strategy which includes tax cutting, rebates and increase spending.

Explanation:

The government budget will be modified to the tax cutting strategies to implement expansionary fiscal policies. This includes increase in spending so that less money is saved and the tax amount on the profit is minimum.

4 0
3 years ago
A firm sells its product in a perfectly competitive market where other firms charge a price of $80 per unit. The firm’s total co
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

A) Q=17

B) $80

C) 518

Explanation:

C(Q) = 60 + 12Q + 2Q2

and its MC = 12+ 4Q

a.How much output should the firm produce in the short run?

Put P = MC and solve for Q

P=MC

80=12+4Q

4Q=68

Divide both sides of the equation by 4

Q=17

b.What price should the firm charge in the short-run? $80

c.What are the firm’s short-run profits?

Hint:

Profit=Total Revenue-Total CostTotal Revenue=$80x17=1360

TotalCost=60+12x17+2(17)2=60+204+578=842

Profit=1360-842=518

6 0
4 years ago
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