Answer:
Correct option is D.
Explanation: A contingency is an existing situation where uncertainty exists as to possible gain or loss that will be resolved when one or more future events occur or fail to occur.
In business, a contingency plan is a plan or course of action a company would implement if an unexpected event occurs. Basically, what this means is that a company is preparing for any outcome.
<u>Answer:</u>
- BEP = EBIT / Total Assets
BEP = $2,451 / $43,000 = 0.057
-
Profit Margin = Net Profit / Sales
Profit Margin = $990 / $51,600 = 0.0192
-
Operating Margin = Operating Profit / Sales
Operating Margin = $2,451 / $51,600 = 0.0475
-
Dividends per share = Dividend paid to Shareholders / Number of shares outstanding
Dividends per share = $346.67 / $500 = 0.69334
-
EPS = Net Income available to Shareholders / Number of shares outstanding
EPS = $990 / $500 = $1.98
- P/E ratio = Market price per share / EPS
P/E ratio = $23.7 / 1.98 = 11.97
-
Book value per share = Shareholders Equity / Shares outstanding
Book value per share = $15,265 / $500 = $30.53
-
Market-to-book ratio = Market Value per share / Book value per share
Market-to-book ratio = $23.7 / S30.53 = 0.7763
-
Equity Multiplier = Total Assets / Shareholders Equity
Equity Multiplier = $43,000 / $15,265 = 2.82
Answer:
The addition to retained earnings is $121,400.
Explanation:
Net Income = $192,400
Dividend = $71,000
use Following formula to calculate the addition to retained earning
Addition to Retained Earning = Net Income - Dividend paid
Addition to Retained Earning = $192,400 - $71,000
Addition to Retained Earning = $121,400
So, the addition to retained earnings is $121,400
Answer:
c. 0.59
Explanation:
Correlation co-efficient refers to a statistical measure that computes the strength of a relationship between two variables. It does not have a unit like meter per second or months per pound. A correlation co-efficient of 1 means that there is a strong and positive relationship or direct relationship, while a negative correlation means an inverse relationship.
Answer:
The risk free rate (Rf) is 28,2%
Explanation:
We will substituting the portfolio expected return (Er) and the betas of the portfolio in the expected return & beta relationship, that is:
E[r] = Rf + Beta * (Risk Premium)
On doing this we get 2 equations in which the risk free rate (Rf) and the risk premium [P] are not known to use:
12% = Rf + 1 * (P - Rf)
9% = Rf + 1.2 * (P - Rf)
On solving first equation (of Portfolio A) for P(risk premium), we get:
12% = Rf + 1 * (P - Rf)
12% = Rf + P - Rf
(Rf and Rf cancels each other)
P = 12%
Now, on using the value of P in second equation (of Portfolio B), and solving for Rf (risk free rate), we get:
9% = Rf + 1.2 * (12.2% - Rf)
9% = Rf + 14.64% -1.2Rf
1.2Rf - Rf = 14.64% - 9%
0.2Rf = 5,64%
Rf = 5.64% / 0.2
Rf = 28,2%
So, the risk free rate (Rf) is 28,2%
