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nika2105 [10]
3 years ago
14

I need help solving Pythagorean theorem

Mathematics
1 answer:
viktelen [127]3 years ago
5 0
Since theirs no question...

The formula for PT:

a^+b^=c^
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What is the mode for 2103 and 623m
lions [1.4K]

there is no mode

no number repeats

3 0
3 years ago
I need help with this
Finger [1]

ask your teacher.

use a calculator.

Use math tutoring for this module.

Pay more attention to the lecture.

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3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!
amid [387]

Answer:

10 sides (decagon)

Step-by-step explanation:

You find the perimeter by adding up all the sides of a shape.

side + side + side + side... = perimeter

You know that <em>each</em> side is 4/5 centimeters. You also know that the perimeter is 8 centimeters.

<u>You can set up an equation like this:</u>

4/5 * number of sides = 8

<em>or you can write it in a simpler form as:</em>

4/5x=8

<u>Now solve it like a normal equation:</u>

5 * (4/5x) = (8) * 5

(4x) / 4=(40) / 4

x = 10

So, you know the shape has 10 sides that are 4/5 centimeters each.

7 0
3 years ago
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sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

sas fact congruency

Step-by-step explanation:

angle and same side are given

both triangle have same side

3 0
3 years ago
Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your i
Sergio039 [100]

Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893

Step-by-step explanation:

We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as

P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)

Where

x represent the number of successes.

p represents the probability of success.

q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.

n represents the number of trials or sample.

From the information given,

p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36

q = 0.64

n = 5

Therefore,

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)

P(x = 0) = 5C0 × 0.36^0 × 0.64^(5 - 0)

P(x = 0) = 1 × 1 × 0.107

P(x = 0) = 0.107

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893

3 0
3 years ago
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