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LiRa [457]
3 years ago
6

4. You have determined that Company X estimates bad debt expense with an aging of accounts receivable schedule. Company X's esti

mate of uncollectible receivables resulting from the aging analysis equals $250. The beginning balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts was $220. Write-offs of bad debts during the period were $180. What amount would be recorded as bad debt expense for the current period? a. $180 b. $250 c. $210 d. $220
Business
2 answers:
Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c. $210

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Given that the bad debts written off were $180 and the beginning balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts was $220, the amount in the allowance for doubtful accounts after the write off

= $220 - $180

= $40

Since estimate of uncollectible receivables resulting from the aging analysis equals $250, additional amount to be provided for

= $250 - $40

= $210

Entries required are

Debit Bad debt expense  $210

Credit Allowance for doubtful debt  $210

MariettaO [177]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. $180

Explanation:

Bad debt expenses is generally classified as Administrative expense and hence it is included in the expense section of the income statement before the calculation of the Net Income.

From the question it is evident that the write offs during the period were $180 and hence the expense recorded in the Income statement as bad debt expense would be $180 because they are unrecoverable for the current period.

Hope this helps.

Thanks buddy.

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Human resources management is the strategic approach to the effective management of people in a company or organization such that they help their business gain a competitive advantages. it is designed to maximize employees performance in service of an employer's strategic objective

4 0
3 years ago
The balance in retained earnings on December 31, 2017, was $1435000 and on December 31, 2018, it was $1160000. Net income for 20
Inessa [10]

Answer:

b. $556,000.

Explanation:

Retained Earning is an account where all the earnings of the company accumulate and dividend is also paid from this account because it represents the amount the earning associated with the stockholders of the company.

December 31, 2018 Balance of Retained Earning = December 31, 2017 Balance of Retained Earning + Income for the year - Dividend Paid / Declared during the year.

$1,164,000 = $1,440,000  + $1,000,000 - Dividend Paid / Declared during the year.

$1,164,000 = $2,440,000 - Dividend Paid / Declared during the year.

Dividend Paid / Declared during the year = $2,440,000 - $1,164,000

Dividend Paid / Declared during the year = $1,276,000

Stock Dividend Paid - $500,000 + $220,000 = $720,000

Cash Dividend Paid = $1,276,000 - $720,000 = $556,000

6 0
3 years ago
The master budget of Swifty Corporation shows that the planned activity level for next year is expected to be 50000 machine hour
densk [106]

Answer:

Total Manufacturing Overheads = $1198,333

Explanation:

<em>Machine Supplies would vary with the new level of machine hours. therefore flex the overheads to obtain the budgeted manufacturing overheads.</em>

<em>Note ; Depreciation remains constant as this is not affected by new level of machine hours</em>

<u>Total manufacturing overhead costs at a level of 60000 machine hours</u>

Indirect labor (780,000 /50,000×60,000)             650,000

Machine supplies ($250000/50,000×60,000)      208,333

Indirect materials  (180,000/50,000×60,000)        150,000

Depreciation on factory building                             190,000

Total Manufacturing Overheads                             1198,333

3 0
3 years ago
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7 0
3 years ago
When someone owns an asset (such as a share of stock) that rises in value, he has an "accrued" capital gain. If he sells the ass
puteri [66]

Answer:

Please check the answer below

Explanation:

a. One issue is the "locking-in" of assets. If I hold shares of Corporation X, then I can delay paying taxes as long as I don't sell. Effectively, I get to keep all of the interest/dividend payments on my tax liability. However, if I discover that X is really a poor investment and Corporation Y is better, then selling X and buying Y means that I have to pay taxes. This might discourage me from making a switch to a more profitable/efficient investment decision. This is the "locking-in" effect.

b. A short-run cut might cause many people to sell stocks that they had felt "locked-in" with. The penalty for switching is smaller, so more people will do it -- resulting in a great deal of cap gains tax revenue collected.

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6 0
4 years ago
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