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andrew11 [14]
3 years ago
9

On October 30, Cleo Co. purchased a machine for $26,000 and estimates it will use the machine for four-years with a $2,000 salva

ge value. Using the straight-line depreciation method, compute the machine's first year partial depreciation expense for October 30 through December 31.
Business
1 answer:
Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Partial depreciation expense, from October 30 to December 31=$1,000

Explanation:

The depreciation base can be expressed;

depreciation base=purchase cost-salvage value

where;

purchase cost=$26,000

salvage value=$2,000

replacing;

depreciation base=26,000-2,000=$24,000

depreciation base=$24,000

annual depreciation expense=depreciation base/useful life

where;

depreciation base=$24,000

useful life=4 years

replacing;

annual depreciation expense=24,000/4=$6,000

Partial depreciation expense, from October 30 to December 31=2 months

Partial depreciation expense=(2/12)×6,000=$1,000

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Read 2 more answers
The Assembly Department started the month with 24,900 units in its beginning work in process inventory. An additional 309,900 un
OleMash [197]

Answer:

304900 units should be transferred to the next processing department during the month.

Explanation:

Work in process : As a name suggest, the Work in process (WIP) is a process in which the work is in under processing or we can say it is not 100 % completed. It can be incomplete in any cycle .

It includes various cost like - direct material , direct labor, overhead, etc.

To find out how much units is to be transferred, the following equation is used which is shown below.

= Opening Work in process inventory + Purchase of inventory - closing work in progress inventory

= 24,900 units + 309,900 units - 29,900 units

= 304900 units

Thus, 304900 units should be transferred to the next processing department during the month.

6 0
3 years ago
Bretthauer Corporation has provided data concerning the Corporation's Manufacturing Overhead account for the month of July. Prio
skad [1K]

Answer:

a) Manufacturing overhead applied to Work in Process for the month was $70,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

The total of the Manufacturing Overhead account = $58,000 i.e incurred

And, the total of credit to the account = $70,000 i.e applied amount

So according to the given data, the manufacturing overhead should be applied to the work in process with the total credit amount i.e $70,000

Hence, the first option is correct

4 0
3 years ago
Pappy's Toys makes two models of a metal toy—Standard and DeLuxe. Both models are produced on a single machine. The price and co
Molodets [167]

Answer:

a) it will do 210,000 units of standard

b) 127,500 units of standard

     19,000 units of deluxe

Explanation:

         Standard   Deluxe

Sales                      115        135

Variable Cost      50         54

CM                            165         189

Constrain resource     0.5                1.5

   (machine hours)

CM per constrain  330.00    126.00

a)

As the company can use up to 105,000 machine hours It will use as much as it can in doing Standard model which yield a better contribution of the constrain resource.

105,000 machine hours available / 0.5 hours per standard unit = 210,000 units

As there are 230,000 untis available for Standard we can use the entire capacity for standard and achieve the maximum contribution

b) as there isn't enough demand for standard the compay will do the 127,500 and the rest fill it with deluxe:

105,000 hours - 127,500 x 0.5 = 28,500 hours for deluxe

28,500 / 1.5 hours per unt = 19,000 units for deluxe

3 0
3 years ago
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