All categories

3 years ago

Y=2x-5 3x+8y+32=56 What does y and x equal?

1 answer:

5 0

Y = 2x - 5
3x + 8y + 32 = 56
3x + 8(2x - 5) + 32 = 56
3x + 8(2x) - 8(5) + 32 = 56
3x + 16x - 40 + 32 = 56
19x - 8 = 56
 + 8 + 8
 19x = 64
 19 19
 x = 3.4
y = 2(3.4) - 5
y = 6.8 - 5
y = 1.8
(x, y) = (3.4, 1.8)

You might be interested in

Please help, marking brainliest for the correct answer

mr_godi [17]

These are corresponding lines, as they are opposite.

I hope this helps.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The 888 mile trip to the ranch took three times as long as the 280 mile trip to the ocean because the speed was 4 mph less than

ziro4ka [17]

Alright, lets get started.

Suppose the speed to the ranch = x mph

So, speed to the ocean will be = (x-4) mph (because the speed was 4 mph less than the speed to the ranch)

Distance to the ranch = 888 miles

time moving to the ranch $= \frac{distance}{speed}$

time moving to the ranch $= \frac{888}{x}$

time moving to the ocean $= \frac{280}{x-4}$

As per given in question, the 888 mile trip to the ranch took three times as long as the 280 mile trip to the ocean , means

$\frac{888}{x} = 3 * \frac{280}{x-4}$

$\frac{888}{x}= \frac{840}{x-4}$

Corss multiplying

$888 (x-4) = 840 x$

$888 x - 3552 = 840 x$

$48 x = 3552$

$x=74$

Hence speed to ranch = 74 mph

Hence speed to ocean = $74 - 4 = 70$ mph

time for trip to ranch = $\frac{888}{74} = 12$ hrs

time for trip to ocean = $\frac{280}{70} = 4$ hrs

So, speed to ranch is 74 mph and trip time is 12 hrs and speed to ocean is 70mph and time is 4 hrs.

Hope it will help :)

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The two-way frequency table shows the laptop color preferences, for a random sample of high school students. Which statement is

worty [1.4K]

Answer:

Most males preferred black laptops

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

If a b equals 5 x + 2 y 80 equals 3x - 2y + BC equals 11 find X and Y

tatiyna

Jbexjbcejhcejhecinceixneiexniexhixeh

7 0

3 years ago

Suppose that X is a random variable with mean and variance both equal to 20. What can be said about P{0 ≤ X ≤ 40}.

Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

$P(0 \leq X \40) = \frac{19}{20}$

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that:

$P(|X - 20| < 20) + P(|X - 20| \geq 20) = 1$

$P(0 \leq X \leq 40) = P(0-20 \leq X-20 \leq 40-20) = P(-20 \leq X \leq 20) = P(|X - 20| \leq 20)$

$P(|X - 20| \leq 20) = 1 - P(|X - 20| > 20) = 1 - \frac{20}{20^{2}} = \frac{19}{20}$

$P(0 \leq X \40) = \frac{19}{20}$

5 0

3 years ago