Mr. Bueller's behavior at the end of "Seventh Grade" makes Victor feel more

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

3 years ago

What is the midpoint of a line segment with endpoints at (6, -4) and (15,8)?

german

Answer:

Look at the attachment

8 0

3 years ago

A store 7% sales tax.which expression can be used to find the total cost of an item with a price of p?

galina1969 [7]

1.07

Step-by-step explanation:

Below. Lets say 1 is 100 dollars sale tax. If 1 is 100 7 would be 7.00

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Student made five tetrahedrons, a three dimensional figure with four triangular faces and labeled the faces 1-4. use an equation

JulsSmile [24]

The probability is 1/1024.

Each tetrahedron has a 1/4 chance of landing on 3, since there are 4 sides and only one of them is marked 3.

Each tetrahedron roll is independent, since no roll is affected by another.

This means we multiply the probabilities:
1/4(1/4)(1/4)(1/4)(1/4) = 1/1024

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Hey guys!

GaryK [48]

The value of c from the given expression is -

<h3>Function and values</h3>

Given the following function

c(n)= −c(n−1)+1

Given the following parameters

c(1)=3

Substitute

3 = −c(3−1)+1

3 = -2c + 1

-2c = 3-1

-2c = 2

c = -1

Hence the value of c from the given expression is -1

Learn more on equation here: brainly.com/question/2972832

#SPJ1

8 0

1 year ago