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zalisa [80]
4 years ago
12

X-rays are used instead of visible light becauseX-rays have shorter ______ than visible light allowing them to produce images of

much greater detail
Physics
1 answer:
UkoKoshka [18]4 years ago
7 0
<span>X-rays are used instead of visible light because X-rays have shorter wavelengths than visible light allowing them to produce images of much greater detail</span>
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How can damage to living things occur from exposure to X-rays or gamma
OLEGan [10]

Answer:C

Explanation:

just did the quiz

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3 years ago
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A spring with k = 53 N/m hangs vertically next to a ruler. The end of the spring is next to the 18 cm mark on the ruler. If a 2.
Anarel [89]

Answer:

1.07 m

Explanation:

x = Compression of the spring

k = Spring constant = 53 N/m

Initial length = 18 cm

P = Kinetic energy

K = Kinetic energy

At the lowest point of the mass the energy conservation is as follows

P_{ig}+P_{is}+K_i=P_{fg}+P_{fs}+K_f\\\Rightarrow mgx+0+0=mgx+\frac{1}{2}kx^2\\\Rightarrow x=\frac{2mg}{k}\\\Rightarrow x=\frac{2\times 2.4\times 9.81}{53}\\\Rightarrow x=0.89\ m

At its lowest position the mark on the ruler will be

x_f=0.18+0.89\\\Rightarrow x_f=1.07\ m

The spring line will end up at 1.07 m

4 0
3 years ago
Describe how a bowling pin will react to the unbalanced force of a bowling ball.
Jlenok [28]
Because the forces are not balanced the pin will fall down and go backwards and the force of the bowling ball will keep going after acting upon the non active pin

7 0
3 years ago
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A 10 kg box slides horizontally without friction at a speed of 1 m/s. At one point, a constant force is applied to the box in th
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

Fapp = 3 N

Explanation:

  • Applying the work-energy theorem, we know that the net work done on one object by an applied force, is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the object.
  • This work is just the product of the applied force times the displacement, as follows:

       W_{net} = F_{app} * d (1)

  • This must be equal to the change in kinetic energy:

       \Delta K = K_{f}  - K_{i} = \frac{1}2}* m* (v_{f} ^{2} -v_{i} ^{2} ) (2)

  • Equating (1) and (2),  and replacing by the givens, we can solve for Fapp, as follows:

       F_{app} =(\frac{1}2}* m* (v_{f} ^{2} -v_{i} ^{2} ) ) / d = (5 kg* (2m/s)^{2} -1m/s^{2})/ 5 m =  3 N

  • The  magnitude of the applied force is 3 N.
4 0
3 years ago
Explain buoyancy in one sentence
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

the tendency of a body to float or to rise when submerged in a fluid testing an object's buoyancy.

Explanation:

The meaning is from Merriam Webster for more such unique nd it also has easy meanings you can download that

(Source Merriam Webster)

Hope it helps unnie

Mark me as Brainliest plz!

Have a nice day

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3 years ago
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