Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
You could use the equation
+4+(-4)=0 if:
-you earn $4 and spend it
-buying 4 candy bars then eating them
-earning 4 points then losing them
Answer:
Is it 2?
Step-by-step explanation:
The Figures that are shown in the diagram are
Ray CD
and
Segment CD
We know that the domain is actually the number of rolls
that she gets because it is the input variable in the equation f (r) = 40 r + 26. The number of rolls that
she can get can never be a negative number nor a zero nor a decimal number.
However she can only get up to 10 rolls. Therefore the answer is:
all integers from 1 to 10, inclusive