Answer:
b) 5
Explanation:
W TP MP MRP
1 100
2 190 90 900
3 270 80 800
4 340 70 700
5 400 60 600
6 450 50 500
7 490 40 400
8 520 30 300
the marginal product of n labor = (total product of n labor - the total product of p labor)/(n-p)............(n>p)
Marginal revenue product = marginal product*price
the firm employ input up to marginal revenue product equal to the wage
MRP = wage or closest lower wage
where W = 5
the firm will higher 5 workers.
Answer:
The Net Operating income will be the same for both methods.
Explanation:
Net Operating income under absorption costing and variable costing methods usually differ because of existence of inventory.
Fixed overheads are deferred in Inventory when using absorption costing. Meaning that a higher income is obtained under absorption costing than variable costing when there is inventory and a lower income under absorption costing than variable costing.
When units produced are units sold, there is no inventory. Therefore, the Net Operating income will be the same for both methods.
It is true that departmentalization by location allows an organization to readily respond to the unique demands of each geographical area.
The departmentalization by location is a strategy that organizations use to maintain departments in different locations where they operate, in order to deal more closely with the company's activities and needs.
This is a positive strategy that can speed up decision making, as each geographic area has different needs that must be addressed differently from the other.
So the statement is true and some of the advantages of departmentalization by location is improved communication, better allocation of employees and greater product promotion.
Learn more about departmentalization here:
brainly.com/question/6229273
Answer:
$ 2,209,797.96
Explanation:
Given:
Salary = $100,000
Salary investment rate = 13%
Salary increase rate(g) = 5%
number of year = 25
Annual rate of return(i) = 11%
Calculation:
Salary invested = $100,000*13% = $13,000
calculation of present worth
![P=A[\frac{1-(1+g)^n(1+i)^{-n}}{i-g}] \\P=13000[\frac{1-(1+0.05)^{25}(1+0.11)^{-25}}{0.11-0.05}] \\P=13000[\frac{1-(1.05)^{25}(1.11)^{-25}}{0.06}] \\P=13000[\frac{1-(3.386354)(0.073608086)}{0.06}]\\\\P=13000[\frac{1-0.249263}{0.06}]\\\\ P=13000[12.5122827]\\\\\\P= 162,659.675](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%3DA%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281%2Bg%29%5En%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B-n%7D%7D%7Bi-g%7D%5D%20%5C%5CP%3D13000%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281%2B0.05%29%5E%7B25%7D%281%2B0.11%29%5E%7B-25%7D%7D%7B0.11-0.05%7D%5D%20%5C%5CP%3D13000%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281.05%29%5E%7B25%7D%281.11%29%5E%7B-25%7D%7D%7B0.06%7D%5D%20%5C%5CP%3D13000%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%283.386354%29%280.073608086%29%7D%7B0.06%7D%5D%5C%5C%5C%5CP%3D13000%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-0.249263%7D%7B0.06%7D%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%20P%3D13000%5B12.5122827%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CP%3D%20162%2C659.675)
The answer is<u> "variable interval.</u>
In operant conditioning, a variable-interval schedule is a schedule of reinforcement where a reaction is remunerated after a capricious measure of time has passed. This timetable creates a moderate, unfaltering rate of reaction.
To see how a variable-interval schedule functions, we should begin by investigating the term itself. Schedule alludes to the rate of support conveyance, or how much of the time the fortification is given. Variable demonstrates that this planning isn't reliable and may fluctuate starting with one preliminary then onto the next. At last, interim implies that conveyance is controlled by time. In this way, a variable-interval schedule implies that support is conveyed at different and erratic intervals of time.
