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olasank [31]
3 years ago
12

International Finance Problem Set on Working Capital Management1. Rossignol Co. manufactures and sells skis and snowboards in Fr

ance, Switzerland and Italy, and also maintains a corporate account in Frankfurt, Germany. Rossignol has been setting separate operating cash balances in each country at a level equal to expected cash needs plus two standard deviations above those needs, based on a statistical analysis of cash flow volatility. Expected operating cash needs and one standard deviation of those needs are below.Rossignol’s Frankfurt bank suggests that the same level of safety could be maintained if all precautionary balances were combined in a central account at the Frankfurt headquarters.a. How much lower would Rossignol’s total cash balances be if all precautionary balances were combined? Assume cash needs in each country are normally distributed and are independent of each other.b. How much would the company save annually, if financing costs are 6% p.a., from centralizing its cash holdings?

Business
1 answer:
dangina [55]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Consider the following explanation

Explanation:

Please note that if cash requirements are combined, mean requirement of combined entity can be simply summed up, but same is not true for standard deviation as it is not additive.

So first we need to calculate the variance by taking square of SD, then we sum it for all the location to get variance of combined entity and then we take square root again to get the SD of combined entity.

Keep in mind that we can take a simple summation of variance due to the fact that requirement in different locations are independent of each other and their correlation coefficient is = 0.

Solution is given through following image sheet -

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Answer:

The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:  

\$1,000 \times 5\% = \$50 =\$1,000 - \$50 = \$950\\\\         \$950 (1 + 0.13)^4 = \$950 (1.13)^4 = \$950 (1.630474) = \$1,548.95\\\\  

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After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:      

\$1,000 (1 + 0.1225)^4 = \$1,437.66   \\\\      \$1,000 (1.1225)^4 = \$1000 (1.587616) = \$ 1,587.62  

Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:      

\$1,587.616 \times 0.99 = \$1,571.74   \\\\                     Amounts     \\\\     Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,548.95\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,571.74 \\\\

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.

Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

\$950 (1.13)^{12} = \$950 (4.334523) = \$4,117.80  \\\\

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.

Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

\$1,000 (1.1225) 12 = \$1,000 (4.001623) = \$4,001.62 \\\\Amounts    \\\\\      Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,117.80\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \   4,001.62\\\\

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of 0.75\%\ \ 12b-1cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the 5\% the burden of class A shareholders.

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