Answer:
(2x+5)(3x-2)
Step-by-step explanation:
6x²+11x-10
6x²+15x-4x-10
3x(2x+5)-2(2x+5)
(2x+5)(3x-2)
D. works because if you work it out that means 2n=140 and then divide by 2 which means n=70 and the other number is 71
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
Answer:
4.8
Step-by-step explanation:
b to c is 3.6
b to d is 8.4
if c is in the middle , you would subtract 8.4 and 3.6
