The formula used to determine free cash flow is cash from operations minus capital expenditures.
Answer:
It will take 2.72 years and 32.64 months.
Explanation:
Future value is the sum of principal amount and compounded interest amount invested on a specific rate for a specific period of time.
Use following formula to calculate the time period.
FV = PV x ( 1+ r )^n
FV = Future value = $6,000
PV = Present Value = $4,000
r = rate of interest = 15% yearly = 15% / 12 = 1.25%
n = time period = ?
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1 + 1.25% )^n
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1.0125 )^n
$6,000 / $4,000 = ( 1.0125 )^n
1.5 = ( 1.0125 )^n
Log 1.5 = n log 1.0125
n = Log 1.5 / log 1.0125
n = 32.64 months
n = 2.72 years
Answer:
There will be a difference in the income .
Absorption costing income will be lower as it transfers all the fixed costs to the ending inventory.
Variable costing income will be higher as it does not transfer the fixed costs to the ending inventory.
The difference will be of $ 104000
Explanation:
Increase in units 8000
Variable Fixed
Unit manufacturing costs of the period $24.00 $10.00
Unit operating expenses of the period 8.00 3.00
Total Unit Costs $ 32.00 $ 13.00
The net operating income under variable costing for the year will be $ 13* 8000= $ 104000 Lower than the net operating income under absorption costing. This is because the all fixed costs will be treated as period cost rather than product costs.
In variable costing the ending inventory will be $104000 lower than the ending inventory under absorption costing because the fixed costs will not be allocated to products.
Under variable costing, the units in the ending inventory will be costed at $32 each.Under absorption costing, the units in the ending inventory will be costed at $32+ $ 13= $ 45 each.
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D. $2,333,572
To find the future value of annuity ordinary the formula is
Fv=pmt [(1+r)^(n)-1)÷r]
Fv future value?
PMT payment per year 3000
R interest rate 0.1025
N time 45 years
So
Fv=3,000×(((1+0.1025)^(45)−1) ÷(0.1025))=
<h2><u>$2,333,571.66
</u></h2>
Good luck!
