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Mumz [18]
3 years ago
5

In a repeated​ game, deterring entry A. is not a rational strategy if money is lost fighting the first potential entrant. B. can

not form a subgame perfect Nash equilibrium. C. is not possible. D. may require losing money fighting the first potential entrant.
Business
1 answer:
sertanlavr [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. May require losing money fighting the first potential entrant.

Explanation:

In this form of gaming, or in this game theory, it is said to be played over and over and could possible be in a probability form that is why that possibly, as a player, you may require loosing money fighting the first potential entrant.

Fighting the first entrant, possibility of cooperating means that their could be a possible compromise in order to carry on accepting a payoff over a certain period of time, knowing that if we do not uphold our end of the deal, our opponent may decide not to either.

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A corporate treasury working out of Vienna with operations in New York simultaneously calls Citibank in New York City and Barcla
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Given $1 million and the following quotes:

Bank C - $0.7551-61/€

Bank B - $0.7545-75/€

There are two different arbitrage strategies that can be attempted. The first is to buy euros from bank B, and then sell them to bank C:

Buy euros Bank B:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7575

Euros to be bought = 1,320,132.01 Euros

Sell euros Bank C:

Euros to be sold = 1,320,132.01 euros x $0.7551 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $996,831.68

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $996,831.68 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$3,168.32

The second strategy involves buy euros from bank C and selling them to bank B: Buy euros Bank C:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x  Euro / $ 0.7561

Euros to be bought = 1,322,576.38 Euros

Sell euros Bank B:

Euros to be sold = 1,322,576.38 euro x 0.7545 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $997,883.88

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $997,883.88 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$2,116.12

In both instances a loss is made by the arbitrage. The arbitrager cannot make a profit using these quotes.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose there is a major technological issue in the production of a good that causes production costs and prices to rise. If dem
ozzi

If the market for a good that sees its production costs and prices rise is inelastic, the quantity demanded will not change.

<h3>What is inelastic demand?</h3>

A good that has inelastic demand is one that will not see its demand change much when there is a price change.

This means that demand remains more or less the same even if prices rise. Examples of such goods are water and food. The product above will therefore not see its demand change by much.

Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/24384825.

3 0
2 years ago
Multiple-Product Break-even, Break-Even Sales Revenue Cherry Blossom Products Inc. produces and sells yoga-training products: ho
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer 1.

DVD Equipment Set Yoga Mat

Sale in Units 13500 4500 9000

Sale Mix 3 1 2

Sales Mix Ratio = 3:1:2

Answer 2.

Let the Break Even Sales = X Units

Therefore, Linear equation of BEP:

3/6 X (8-4) + 1/6 X (25-15) + 2/6 X (16-9) = 119520 (Fixed Costs)

X = 19920 Units

BEP of

DVD = 19,920 Units X 3/6 = 9960 Units

Equipment Set = 19,920 Units X 1/6 = 3320 Units

Yoga Mat = 19920 Units X 2/6 = 6640 Units

Answer 3.

DVD Equipment Set Yoga Mat Total

Sale in Units 13,500 4,500 9,000 27,000

SP 8 25 16

Sales in $ 108,000 112,500 144,000 364,500

Less: Variable Costs 54,000 67,500 81,000 202,500

Contribution 54,000 45,000 63,000 162,000

Contribution Margin Ratio 50.00% 40.00% 43.75% 44.44%

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution / Sales

Overall Break Even Sales Revenue = $119520 (Fixed Costs) / 44.44% (Contribution Margin Ratio)

Overall Break Even Sales Revenue = $268,920

Answer 4.

Margin of Safety = Sales - BES

Margin of Safety = $364,500 - 268920 = $95,580

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The general willingness of consumers to purchase a product at various prices is __________.
Wittaler [7]
Demand.

If you found this especially helpful, I'd appreciate if you'd vote me Brainliest for your answer. I want to be able to assist more users one-on-one, as well as to move up in rank! :)
4 0
3 years ago
XYZ Company leased equipment to West Corporation under a lease agreement that qualifies as a finance lease to West but not as a
melomori [17]

Answer:

132,000$ will be recorded by west as amortization expense for the year.

Explanation:

Depreciation/amortization is systematic allocation of cost of asset over its useful life. In this case asset cost is not given so we assume that PV of lease payment is equal to market value (660,000 dollars) of asset.

In case of leased asset the useful life taken for calculation of depreciation is lower of 1) Useful life 2) Lease term as per applicable accounting standards.

So we have taken 5 years to charge depreciation on Straight line method.

Hence by dividing 660000 by five we get our answer.

7 0
2 years ago
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