Answer:
$6,225.08
Explanation:
The computation of the future value of these cash flows in year 4 is shown below:
= Year 1 cash flow × (1 + interest rate)^year + Year 2 cash flow × (1 + interest rate)^year + Year 3 cash flow × (1 + interest rate)^year + Year 4 cash flow × (1 + interest rate)^year
= $950 × 1.08^3 + $1,180 × 1.08^2 + $1,400 × 1.08^1 + $2,140
= $950 × 1.259712 + $1,180 × 1.1664 + $1,400 × 1.08 + $2,140
= $1,196.7264 + $1,376.352 + $1,512 + $2,140
= $6,225.08
a yardstick report would be used. it would be organized indirectly, describing the problem, explaining alternatives, establishing criteria for comparison, evaluating each alternative in terms of the criteria, and making recommendations.
Answer:
We have to discount these payments to find the present value
500,000
500,000/1.1
500,000/1.1^2
500,000/1.1^3
We keep on doing this until we reach 500,000/1.1^19
After that we add all the payments and get the value. A less time consuming way of doing it is using a financial calculator
Pv=?
N=19
FV=0
PMT=500,000
=4,182,460.05 we add 500,000 to this because the first payment was not discounted=4,682,460.05= Present Value.
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Accounts for resources that are legally restricted so only earnings, not principal, may be expended.
Explanation:
Based on the scenario been described in the question, we can say that a permanent fund classified under governmental funds are accounts for resources that are legally restricted so only earnings, not principal, may be expended. We have government funds as special service funds and debt service funds. so we this explanation, we can see that the best is option D which is the correct answer.
<span>The answer to this
question is “TRUE”. A bond is just like a loan. However, the main difference is
that with loans, the public is borrowing money from a bank or lending source.
With Bonds, the company borrows money from the public. Both have interest rates
and payment due based on the terms of agreement.</span>
